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This can not be so easyby eljose79
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#1
Apr403, 09:24 AM

P: 215

suppose we want to solve the integral equation
g(x)=Int(1,1)exp(xy)f(y)dy (2) then this is equal to g(x)=Int(infinite,infinite)exp(xy)f(y)W(y)dy where the W(y) function is defined like that: W(y) is 1 iif 1<y<1 and 0 elsewhere. then we would have that the equation (2) is a fourier transform and inverting we can get f(x)W(x). Is all that?..i can not believe that solving an integral equation could be so easy... 


#2
Apr403, 10:23 AM

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I'm afraid I don't quite understand your question.
You refer to g(x)=Int(1,1)exp(xy)f(y)dy as an "integral equation" so I presume you mean that g is given and you want to find f. How does converting to the integral from inf to inf make this a Fourier transform? Doesn't the Fourier transform have an exp(ixy) in it? 


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