# this can not be so easy

by eljose79
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 P: 215 suppose we want to solve the integral equation g(x)=Int(-1,1)exp(-xy)f(y)dy (2) then this is equal to g(x)=Int(-infinite,infinite)exp(-xy)f(y)W(y)dy where the W(y) function is defined like that: W(y) is 1 iif -1
 Math Emeritus Sci Advisor Thanks PF Gold P: 38,706 I'm afraid I don't quite understand your question. You refer to g(x)=Int(-1,1)exp(-xy)f(y)dy as an "integral equation" so I presume you mean that g is given and you want to find f. How does converting to the integral from -inf to inf make this a Fourier transform? Doesn't the Fourier transform have an exp(-ixy) in it?
 P: 24 think he forgot the i in the exp but i don't know if you can add the W(y)

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