- #1
dyn
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Hi. I realize that Jacobians are not normally used in 1-D but I'm confused as to the following.
If I have the following integral ∫a-a f(x)dx and make the change of variable y = -x then dy = -dx and the limits of integration reverse so I end up with
∫-aa f(-y)(-dy)
but if I use the Jacobian to perform the change of variable it takes the modulus of the determinant so I end up with dy = dx and the limits still reverse so I end up with
∫-aa f(-y)dy.
So my 2 integrals which should be the same differ by a minus sign ! What am I doing wrong ?
Thanks
If I have the following integral ∫a-a f(x)dx and make the change of variable y = -x then dy = -dx and the limits of integration reverse so I end up with
∫-aa f(-y)(-dy)
but if I use the Jacobian to perform the change of variable it takes the modulus of the determinant so I end up with dy = dx and the limits still reverse so I end up with
∫-aa f(-y)dy.
So my 2 integrals which should be the same differ by a minus sign ! What am I doing wrong ?
Thanks