- #1
Starwanderer1
- 18
- 0
Being possibly the newest member here, I would like to put a question that has troubled my mind for quite a while..
If I have a uniform ring (having a certain mass) and a point mass in some idealised gravity free space & I orient them such that the point mass lies exactly at center of the ring(mutual gravitational interactions possible). (my confusion begins here..)
What would be the force between these 2 objects in this configuration?
If I try to find it by directly applying the formula for field at the center of a ring, the answer would definitely be 0..
Taking Symmetry considerations, we can answer 0 once again..
But looking at the expression in the universal law of gravitation, we find that the answer comes out to be infinite as centers of mass of the 2 bodies are coinciding..
How can this be explained? Further the field expressions can be derived from this law. Isn't this paradoxical? Is a concept of infinite force between two rigid bodies of any physical significance?
Hoping for a quick reply...
If I have a uniform ring (having a certain mass) and a point mass in some idealised gravity free space & I orient them such that the point mass lies exactly at center of the ring(mutual gravitational interactions possible). (my confusion begins here..)
What would be the force between these 2 objects in this configuration?
If I try to find it by directly applying the formula for field at the center of a ring, the answer would definitely be 0..
Taking Symmetry considerations, we can answer 0 once again..
But looking at the expression in the universal law of gravitation, we find that the answer comes out to be infinite as centers of mass of the 2 bodies are coinciding..
How can this be explained? Further the field expressions can be derived from this law. Isn't this paradoxical? Is a concept of infinite force between two rigid bodies of any physical significance?
Hoping for a quick reply...