- #1
greypilgrim
- 515
- 36
Hi.
In the (mainstream) books of electrodynamics I know, the electric and magnetic fields are introduced as force fields normalized to a charged test particle of 1 C. This makes those fields appear as an unnecessary, but convenient mathematical tool. They cannot be measured in the absence of charged particles, but it's comfortable to assume they're actually there.
However, later those fields are ascribed properties like energy and momentum even in the complete absence of particles (e.g. EM waves). Energy and momentum are NOT conserved if only particles are taken into account.
I'm somehow missing the step from "mathematical tool" to "gizmo that, although massless, is capable of carrying energy and momentum". Especially with momentum which is, by it's definition p=mv, bound to massive particles.
If I were to reformulate ED sticking only to force laws and avoiding fields (if this is possible), would I generate a theory that violates conservation of energy and/or momentum?
In the (mainstream) books of electrodynamics I know, the electric and magnetic fields are introduced as force fields normalized to a charged test particle of 1 C. This makes those fields appear as an unnecessary, but convenient mathematical tool. They cannot be measured in the absence of charged particles, but it's comfortable to assume they're actually there.
However, later those fields are ascribed properties like energy and momentum even in the complete absence of particles (e.g. EM waves). Energy and momentum are NOT conserved if only particles are taken into account.
I'm somehow missing the step from "mathematical tool" to "gizmo that, although massless, is capable of carrying energy and momentum". Especially with momentum which is, by it's definition p=mv, bound to massive particles.
If I were to reformulate ED sticking only to force laws and avoiding fields (if this is possible), would I generate a theory that violates conservation of energy and/or momentum?