- #1
manuel huant
- 4
- 0
i got this question when i read the proof of stone-weierstrass theorem in baby rudin , page 159 , this inequality seems right when n becomes larger, since 1-nx^2 would be negative and (1-x^2)^n always positive, but i don't know how to proved it rigorously using binomial theorem for all n , or is there any other rigorous proof ?