- #1
pamparana
- 128
- 0
Hello everyone,
I am having trouble understanding the concept of a limit not existing for functions like sin (1/x) when x tends to 0. The good book says that the function "does not settle on any value as we get closer to x" implying some infinite oscillation. I am having trouble visualizing it and why it should happen with this particular function.
Any kind soul here willing to elaborate on this and help me understand this better? I would be extremely grateful.
Many thanks,
Luca
I am having trouble understanding the concept of a limit not existing for functions like sin (1/x) when x tends to 0. The good book says that the function "does not settle on any value as we get closer to x" implying some infinite oscillation. I am having trouble visualizing it and why it should happen with this particular function.
Any kind soul here willing to elaborate on this and help me understand this better? I would be extremely grateful.
Many thanks,
Luca