- #1
Mr. Tambourine Man
- 15
- 0
Forgive me for my ignorance on these matters. I know almost nothing about math or physics. My only knowledge on such things is what I have been able to grain from Popular Science/Math books. I have never even graduated from college. But please allow me to post a question. Although I want to get more in-depth as to why I am asking this question, unfortunately I am pressed for time. Can anyone give me a quick answer?
Is it meaningful to speak of a sinusoidal wave with infinite frequency and infitessimal amplitude? Would such an entity effectively be the same as a straight line or would it not?
Say one were to draw a "ray" straight down the middle of a wave such that its its crests and troughs have an equal perpendicular distance from said ray. I think it would be correct to say that this wave's "deviance" from this straight line is proportional to the total area of crests and troughs (i.e. the area whose boundaries are the ray and the wave itself). But if one decreases the amplitude ad infinitum, would it not be correct to say that the wave's deviance from the straight line is zero, thus equaling a straight line?
Thank you.
David.
Is it meaningful to speak of a sinusoidal wave with infinite frequency and infitessimal amplitude? Would such an entity effectively be the same as a straight line or would it not?
Say one were to draw a "ray" straight down the middle of a wave such that its its crests and troughs have an equal perpendicular distance from said ray. I think it would be correct to say that this wave's "deviance" from this straight line is proportional to the total area of crests and troughs (i.e. the area whose boundaries are the ray and the wave itself). But if one decreases the amplitude ad infinitum, would it not be correct to say that the wave's deviance from the straight line is zero, thus equaling a straight line?
Thank you.
David.