- #1
cbarker1
Gold Member
MHB
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Dear Everyone,
What is the correct mapping between the polynomial rings $\mathbb{Z}[x]$ and $\mathbb{Q}[x]$? The function $\phi$ is defined as $\phi(x^2+1)=\frac{1}{2}x$. I want to prove this problem by contradiction.
Thanks,
Cbarker1
What is the correct mapping between the polynomial rings $\mathbb{Z}[x]$ and $\mathbb{Q}[x]$? The function $\phi$ is defined as $\phi(x^2+1)=\frac{1}{2}x$. I want to prove this problem by contradiction.
Thanks,
Cbarker1