Remainder converges uniformly to 0

  • MHB
  • Thread starter mathmari
  • Start date
  • Tags
    Remainder
In summary, the function $f(x) = e^{\lambda x}$ on the interval $[a, b]$ has a lagrange interpolation with points at $[a, b]$ that converges uniformly to $0$.
  • #1
mathmari
Gold Member
MHB
5,049
7
Hey! :eek:

We have the function $f (x) = e^{\lambda x}$ on an interval $[a, b] , \ \lambda \in \mathbb{R}$.

I want to show that the remainder $R_n (x) = f (x)- p_n (x)$ at the lagrange interpolation of $f (x)$ with $n+1$ points from $[a, b]$ for $n \rightarrow \infty$ converges uniformly to $0$.

For each $n$ the points can be chosen arbitrarily in $[a, b]$.
The remainder is defined as $\displaystyle{R_n(x)=f(x)-p_n(x)=\frac{f^{(n+1)}(\xi_x)}{(n+1)!}\prod_{i=0}^n(x-x_i)=\frac{\lambda^{n+1}e^{\lambda \xi_x}}{(n+1)!}\prod_{i=0}^n(x-x_i)}$, right?

Then we have the following:

$\displaystyle{|R_n(x)|=|f(x)-p_n(x)|=\left |\frac{\lambda^{n+1}e^{\lambda \xi_x}}{(n+1)!}\prod_{i=0}^n(x-x_i)\right |=\left |\frac{\lambda^{n+1}e^{\lambda \xi_x}}{(n+1)!}\right |\prod_{i=0}^n|x-x_i|}\\ \displaystyle{\leq \frac{|\lambda|^{n+1}\sup_{\xi_x\in [a,b]}e^{\lambda \xi_x}}{(n+1)!} \cdot \sup_{x\in [a,b]}\prod_{i=0}^n|x-x_i|}$

right?

How could we continue? (Wondering)
 
Mathematics news on Phys.org
  • #2
Hey mathmari!

Isn't $|x-x_i| \le b-a$? (Wondering)
 
  • #3
I like Serena said:
Isn't $|x-x_i| \le b-a$? (Wondering)

Ah yes! So, we have the following:

\begin{align*}|R_n(x)|&=|f(x)-p_n(x)|=\left |\frac{\lambda^{n+1}e^{\lambda \xi_x}}{(n+1)!}\prod_{i=0}^n(x-x_i)\right |=\left |\frac{\lambda^{n+1}e^{\lambda \xi_x}}{(n+1)!}\right |\prod_{i=0}^n|x-x_i| \\ & \leq \frac{|\lambda|^{n+1}\sup_{\xi_x\in [a,b]}e^{\lambda \xi_x}}{(n+1)!} \cdot \sup_{x\in [a,b]}\prod_{i=0}^n|x-x_i|\leq \frac{|\lambda|^{n+1}\sup_{\xi_x\in [a,b]}e^{\lambda \xi_x}}{(n+1)!} \cdot \prod_{i=0}^n|b-a|=\frac{|\lambda|^{n+1}\sup_{\xi_x\in [a,b]}e^{\lambda \xi_x}}{(n+1)!} \cdot |b-a|^n\end{align*}

Can we say also something for $\sup_{\xi_x\in [a,b]}e^{\lambda \xi_x}$ ? (Wondering)
 
  • #4
mathmari said:
Can we say also something for $\sup_{\xi_x\in [a,b]}e^{\lambda \xi_x}$ ?

Isn't it a constant that is independent from $x$? (Wondering)
 
  • #5
I like Serena said:
Isn't it a constant that is independent from $x$? (Wondering)

Ah, so is $\xi_x$ independent from $x$ ?
 
  • #6
mathmari said:
Ah, so is $\xi_x$ independent from $x$ ?

Nope. But that supremum is either in $a$ or in $b$, isn't it? (Wondering)
 
  • #7
I like Serena said:
Nope. But that supremum is either in $a$ or in $b$, isn't it?
Ah ok! So, say $c=\sup_{\xi_x\in [a,b]}e^{\lambda \xi_x}$ we get $$\frac{|\lambda|^{n+1}\cdot c}{(n+1)!} \cdot |b-a|^n$$ But how do we know that this converges to $0$ ? Doesn;t this hold only when $\lambda$ and $|b-a|$ are less than $1$ ? (Wondering)
 
  • #8
mathmari said:
Ah ok! So, say $c=\sup_{\xi_x\in [a,b]}e^{\lambda \xi_x}$ we get $$\frac{|\lambda|^{n+1}\cdot c}{(n+1)!} \cdot |b-a|^n$$

Shouldn't that be $\frac{|\lambda|^{n+1}\cdot c}{(n+1)!} \cdot |b-a|^{n+1}$? (Wondering)

mathmari said:
But how do we know that this converges to $0$ ? Doesn;t this hold only when $\lambda$ and $|b-a|$ are less than $1$ ? (Wondering)

Which increases asymptotically faster, $c^n$ or $n!$? (Wondering)
 
  • #9
I like Serena said:
Shouldn't that be $\frac{|\lambda|^{n+1}\cdot c}{(n+1)!} \cdot |b-a|^{n+1}$? (Wondering)

Oh yes, I forgot to counter $i=0$. (Blush)

I like Serena said:
Which increases asymptotically faster, $c^n$ or $n!$? (Wondering)

The factorial? How can we see that? (Wondering)
 
  • #10
mathmari said:
The factorial? How can we see that?

A couple of years ago someone explained it here. (Clapping)
 
  • #11
I like Serena said:
A couple of years ago someone explained it here. (Clapping)

Ooh yes! (Tmi)(Blush) Thank you very much! (Yes)
 

1. What does it mean for a remainder to converge uniformly to 0?

Convergence of a remainder to 0 means that as the number of terms in a series increases, the remaining terms approach 0 at a consistent rate. Uniform convergence means that this rate is the same at all points in the series.

2. How is uniform convergence of a remainder different from pointwise convergence?

Pointwise convergence refers to the convergence of each individual term in a series to a specific limit. Uniform convergence, on the other hand, refers to the convergence of the entire series as a whole to a limit at all points in the series.

3. How is uniform convergence of a remainder related to the concept of continuity?

Uniform convergence of a remainder is closely related to the concept of continuity in calculus. A series with a remainder that converges uniformly to 0 can be considered a continuous function, as the remaining terms approach 0 at a consistent rate.

4. Can a remainder converge uniformly to 0 even if the series itself does not converge?

Yes, it is possible for a remainder to converge uniformly to 0 even if the series itself does not converge. This is because uniform convergence is based on the behavior of the remaining terms in the series, not the overall behavior of the series as a whole.

5. How is the concept of uniform convergence of a remainder used in real-world applications?

The concept of uniform convergence of a remainder is commonly used in the analysis of numerical approximations, such as in numerical integration or differentiation. It is also used in the study of power series and their applications in physics and engineering.

Similar threads

Replies
3
Views
716
Replies
3
Views
741
Replies
7
Views
1K
Replies
5
Views
395
  • General Math
Replies
3
Views
761
Replies
6
Views
933
Replies
5
Views
847
Replies
0
Views
366
Replies
1
Views
403
Replies
18
Views
2K
Back
Top