Solving Basic Inequality: r1, r2, r3, r4 >0 & t1, t2, t3, t4 in [0, 2π)

  • Thread starter Thread starter forumfann
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Inequality
AI Thread Summary
The discussion revolves around whether the inequality r1|cos(t-t1)| + r2|cos(t-t2)| < r3|cos(t-t3)| + r4|cos(t-t4)| for all t in [0, 2π) implies that r1 + r2 < r3 + r4, given r1, r2, r3, r4 > 0 and t1, t2, t3, t4 in [0, 2π). Participants argue that the statement may be false, particularly if t-t1 and t-t2 equal specific values like 0, π, or 2π, which could allow r1 and r2 to exceed r3 and r4 while still satisfying the initial inequality. The complexity arises from the behavior of the cosine function, particularly at critical points where it equals zero. Overall, there is uncertainty about proving the claim, highlighting the need for further exploration of the conditions under which the inequality holds. The discussion emphasizes the intricacies of trigonometric inequalities in this context.
forumfann
Messages
24
Reaction score
0
Could anyone help me on this,
Is it true that for any given r_{1},r_{2},r_{3},r_{4}&gt;0 and t_{1},t_{2},t_{3},t_{4}\in[0,2\pi) if
r_{1}\left|\cos(t-t_{1})\right|+r_{2}\left|\cos(t-t_{2})\right|&lt;r_{3}\left|\cos(t-t_{3})\right|+r_{4}\left|\cos(t-t_{4})\right| for all t\in[0,2\pi)
then r_{1}+r_{2}&lt;r_{3}+r_{4} ?

By the way, this is not a homework problem.

Any help will be highly appreciated!
 
Last edited:
Mathematics news on Phys.org
forumfann said:
Could anyone help me on this,
Is it true that for any given r_{1},r_{2},r_{3},r_{4}&gt;0 and t_{1},t_{2},t_{3},t_{4}\in[0,2\pi) if
r_{1}\left|\cos(t-t_{1})\right|+r_{2}\left|\cos(t-t_{2})\right|&lt;r_{3}\left|\cos(t-t_{3})\right|+r_{4}\left|\cos(t-t_{4})\right| for all t\in[0,2\pi)
then r_{1}+r_{2}&lt;r_{3}+r_{4} ?

By the way, this is not a homework problem.

Any help will be highly appreciated!

I may be incorrect, but I would say this would be false.

What if t-t_{1} and t-t_{2} are equal to 2pi, pi or 0? Then r1 and r2 can be anything, and don't have to satisfy the inequality!
 
Last edited:
If t-t_{1} and t-t_{2} are equal to 2pi, pi or 0 ? Then the left hand side of the given inequality is r_1+r_2, which is less than the right hand side of the given inequality that is not larger than r_3+r_4. Thus the claim is automatically true.

I think what makes it possible to be true is "for all x\in[0,2\pi]", but I don't know how to prove it.

Again, any suggestion that can lead to the answer to the question will be greatly appreciated.
 
Last edited:
Ahh, sorry, I meant pi/2, meaning cos(pi/2) = 0. Then they do not have to be < r3+ r4

Besides, say they are both equal to pi anyway. Then, r1 and r2 can be greater than r3 and r4, yet still hold true in the first inequaility but not the second.
 
Suppose ,instead of the usual x,y coordinate system with an I basis vector along the x -axis and a corresponding j basis vector along the y-axis we instead have a different pair of basis vectors ,call them e and f along their respective axes. I have seen that this is an important subject in maths My question is what physical applications does such a model apply to? I am asking here because I have devoted quite a lot of time in the past to understanding convectors and the dual...
Thread 'Imaginary Pythagorus'
I posted this in the Lame Math thread, but it's got me thinking. Is there any validity to this? Or is it really just a mathematical trick? Naively, I see that i2 + plus 12 does equal zero2. But does this have a meaning? I know one can treat the imaginary number line as just another axis like the reals, but does that mean this does represent a triangle in the complex plane with a hypotenuse of length zero? Ibix offered a rendering of the diagram using what I assume is matrix* notation...
Back
Top