amcavoy
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Here is a link to an image of my problem:
http://img54.imageshack.us/img54/7268/prob31iq.jpg
For part (a), I said that the impulse is the area under the graph and that is equal to Mv (since the initial velocity is zero):
J=\int\limits_{0}^{0.4}F\,dt=.36\implies v=.072\text{m}/\text{s}
Part (b) is where I'm having trouble. Using g=10 N/kg, I can find the coefficient of kinetic friction:
\mu_kmg=F_{0}\implies \mu=.48
This is what I did to find the initial impulse, although I'm not sure if it's right:
F_M=\left(.48\right)F_m\implies F_m=5N
Now I have the initial force; do I just multiply 5 by 0.4 seconds?
Thank you very much.
http://img54.imageshack.us/img54/7268/prob31iq.jpg
For part (a), I said that the impulse is the area under the graph and that is equal to Mv (since the initial velocity is zero):
J=\int\limits_{0}^{0.4}F\,dt=.36\implies v=.072\text{m}/\text{s}
Part (b) is where I'm having trouble. Using g=10 N/kg, I can find the coefficient of kinetic friction:
\mu_kmg=F_{0}\implies \mu=.48
This is what I did to find the initial impulse, although I'm not sure if it's right:
F_M=\left(.48\right)F_m\implies F_m=5N
Now I have the initial force; do I just multiply 5 by 0.4 seconds?
Thank you very much.
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