Surjectivity of a Free Module Homomorphism implies injectivity

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In summary, the conversation discusses the proof of the injectivity of a surjective $R$-module homomorphism $T:M\to M$, where $R$ is a commutative ring and $M$ is a free $R$-module with a finite basis of $n$ elements. The proof involves defining a map $S:M\to M$ and using the equation $S\Bigl(\sum_{i = 1}^n x_i e_i\Bigr) = \sum_{i = 1}^n \sum_{k = 1}^n x_k b_{ki}e_i$, as well as the fact that $AB = I$ if and only if $BA
  • #1
caffeinemachine
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I am trying to prove the following:Let $R$ be a commutative ring and $M$ be a free $R$-module having a finite basis of $n$ elements.
Let $T:M\to M$ be a surjective $R$-module homomorphism.
Then $T$ is injective.Let $I$ be a maximal ideal of $R$.
Note that $I$ annihilates $\widehat M:=M/IM$ and thus $\widehat M$ is an $\bar (R/I)$-module.
Write $\bar R=R/I$.For each $r\in R$, write $\bar r$ to denote $r+I$ and for each $m\in M$ write $\widehat m$ to denote $m+IM$.Define $\widetilde T:\widehat M\to \widehat M$ as
$$\widetilde T(\widehat m)=\widehat{Tm},\quad \forall \widehat m\in \widehat M$$
It is easy to see that $\widetilde T$ is well defined.
Note that $\widetilde T$ is a surjective linear operator on a vector space and hence is also injective.Note that if $\mathcal B=\{e_1,\ldots,e_n\}$ is a basis of $M$, then $\widehat B=\{\widehat e_1,\ldots,\widehat e_n\}$ is a basis for $\widehat M$.Now suppose $T(r_1e_1+\cdots+r_ne_n)=0$. Then we get $\widetilde T(\bar r_1\widehat e_1+\cdots+\bar r_n\widehat e_n)=\widehat 0$.
Since $\widetilde T$ is injective, we get $\bar r_i=\bar 0$ for all $i$.
But this doesn't lead to $r_i=0$.Can anybody see how to complete the proof from here?
 
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  • #2
Hi caffeinemachine,

Let's start from the beginning, with your basis $\mathcal{B} = \{e_1,e_2,\ldots, e_n\}$. There are unique $R$ - scalars $a_{ij}$ ($i,j = 1,2,\ldots, n$) such that

\(\displaystyle T(e_i) = \sum_{j = 1}^n a_{ij}e_j.\)

Since $T$ is surjective, there exist $R$-scalars $b_{ki}$ ($i, k = 1, 2,\ldots, n$) such that

\(\displaystyle e_k = T\Bigl(\sum_{i = 1}^n b_{ki} e_i\Bigr).\)

Hence, for all $k$,

\(\displaystyle e_k = \sum_{i = 1}^n b_{ki} T(e_i) = \sum_{i = 1}^n \sum_{j = 1}^n b_{ki}a_{ij} e_j = \sum_{j = 1}^n c_{kj} e_j,\)

where the constants $c_{kj}$ are defined by the equation

\(\displaystyle c_{kj} = \sum_{i = 1}^n b_{ki}a_{ij}.\)

Since $\mathcal{B}$ is an $R$-basis for $M$, it follows that $c_{kj} = \delta_{kj}$, i.e.,

\(\displaystyle (*)\quad \sum_{i = 1}^n b_{ki}a_{ij} = \delta_{kj} \quad (k, j = 1, 2,\ldots, n)\)

Use the orthogonality relations $(*)$ to show that $T$ is injective.
 
  • #3
Euge said:
Hi caffeinemachine,

Let's start from the beginning, with your basis $\mathcal{B} = \{e_1,e_2,\ldots, e_n\}$. There are unique $R$ - scalars $a_{ij}$ ($i,j = 1,2,\ldots, n$) such that

\(\displaystyle T(e_i) = \sum_{j = 1}^n a_{ij}e_j.\)

Since $T$ is surjective, there exist $R$-scalars $b_{ki}$ ($i, k = 1, 2,\ldots, n$) such that

\(\displaystyle e_k = T\Bigl(\sum_{i = 1}^n b_{ki} e_i\Bigr).\)

Hence, for all $k$,

\(\displaystyle e_k = \sum_{i = 1}^n b_{ki} T(e_i) = \sum_{i = 1}^n \sum_{j = 1}^n b_{ki}a_{ij} e_j = \sum_{j = 1}^n c_{kj} e_j,\)

where the constants $c_{kj}$ are defined by the equation

\(\displaystyle c_{kj} = \sum_{i = 1}^n b_{ki}a_{ij}.\)

Since $\mathcal{B}$ is an $R$-basis for $M$, it follows that $c_{kj} = \delta_{kj}$, i.e.,

\(\displaystyle (*)\quad \sum_{i = 1}^n b_{ki}a_{ij} = \delta_{kj} \quad (k, j = 1, 2,\ldots, n)\)

Use the orthogonality relations $(*)$ to show that $T$ is injective.

Hey Euge!

What you have done is absolutely correct and I thank you for helping out.

But the thing is, the equation $(*)$ is where I had started.

I am a beginner in module theory and yesterday I learned the fact that if $A$ and $B$ are square matrices with entries from a commutative ring $R$, then $AB=I$ if and only if $BA=I$.

If I use this fact then the equation $(*)$ does my job and solves the question I posted.

But the proof of the above which I know uses determinants quite extensively.
I do not want to use determinants.

This may seem unreasonable. But I think determinant-free proofs are much more elegant and enlightening.

So I was trying to prove that if you have a commutative ring $R$, and $R$-linear maps $T,S:R^n\to R^n$ such that $TS=\text{id}$, then $ST=\text{id}$.

From here it was a natural question that if $T:R^n\to R^n$ is surjective then it is also injective.

A determinant-free proof of this in the case where $R$ is a field is well-known. It uses rank-nullity theorem.

I doubt if there is an analog of the rank nullity theorem in the context of free modules of finite rank over a commutative ring without imposing some extra condition on the ring.
 
  • #4
You do not need determinants to prove either injectivity of $T$ using $(*)$, or the statement $AB = I$ if and only if $BA = I$.

There are different, non-determinantal methods to prove injectivity of $T$. One way is to define a map $S : M \to M$ by the equation

\(\displaystyle S\Bigl(\sum_{i = 1}^n x_i e_i\Bigr) = \sum_{i = 1}^n \sum_{k = 1}^n x_k b_{ki}e_i\)

and show that $ST(e_i) = e_i$ for all $i$.

To show that $AB = I$ if and only if $BA = I$, first suppose $AB = I$. We want to show that $A$ is invertible. Suppose $A$ is not invertible. Then there is a sequence $\{E_i\}_{i = 1}^r$ of elementary matrices such that $E_1 E_2\cdots E_r A$ has a row of zeros. Then $E_1 E_2\cdots E_r AB$ has a row of zeros. Since $AB = I$, we deduce that the invertible matrix $E_1 E_2 \cdots E_r$ has a row of zeros, a contradiction. Therefore $BA = I$. A symmetric argument proves the converse.
 
  • #5


The proof can be completed by using the fact that $T$ is a surjective homomorphism. This means that for any element $m\in M$, there exists an element $m'\in M$ such that $T(m')=m$. In other words, every element in the image of $T$ has a preimage in $M$.

Since $T(r_1e_1+\cdots+r_ne_n)=0$, we can choose $m'=r_1e_1+\cdots+r_ne_n$ as the preimage of $0$ under $T$. This means that $T(m')=0$, which implies that $\widetilde T(\widehat{m'})=\widehat{T(m')}=\widehat{0}$. But since $\widetilde T$ is injective, this implies that $\widehat{m'}=\widehat{0}$, which in turn implies that $m'+IM=0$. This means that $m'\in IM$, which can only happen if all the coefficients $r_i$ are in the maximal ideal $I$. But since $I$ is a proper ideal, this means that $r_i=0$ for all $i$, and hence $T$ is injective.

In summary, since every element in the image of $T$ has a unique preimage, and the preimage of $0$ is uniquely determined by the coefficients $r_i$, we can conclude that $T$ is injective. Therefore, the surjectivity of $T$ implies its injectivity, and the proof is complete.
 

Related to Surjectivity of a Free Module Homomorphism implies injectivity

1. What is the definition of surjectivity?

Surjectivity, also known as onto, is a property of a function or mapping where every element in the codomain has at least one corresponding element in the domain.

2. What is the definition of injectivity?

Injectivity, also known as one-to-one, is a property of a function or mapping where every element in the codomain has at most one corresponding element in the domain.

3. How does a free module homomorphism relate to surjectivity and injectivity?

A free module homomorphism is a function that preserves the structure of free modules. If this mapping is also surjective, then it means that every element in the codomain of the function has at least one corresponding element in the domain. This also implies that the function is injective because there cannot be more than one element in the domain mapping to the same element in the codomain.

4. What is the significance of surjectivity of a free module homomorphism?

The surjectivity of a free module homomorphism ensures that there are no "missing" elements in the codomain that are not mapped from the domain. This is important for functions that need to have a complete and balanced mapping between the two sets, such as in linear algebra or in algebraic coding theory.

5. Can a free module homomorphism be surjective but not injective?

No, this is not possible. If a free module homomorphism is surjective, it means that every element in the codomain has at least one corresponding element in the domain. This automatically implies that the function is injective because there cannot be more than one element in the domain mapping to the same element in the codomain.

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