- #1
Nathan M
- 1
- 0
Apologies for the noob question.
The frequency of the human body can be calculated based on weins law as follows:
Wavelength = 0.002898/310 = 0.00000934838 m
Plugging this into the equation λν = c we get
frequency = 299792458 / 0.00000934838 = 32069 Ghz
Elsewhere, I see that the resonant frequencies of the human body (e.g the ocular cavity) are at around 20 Hz. I assume this is physical vibrational frequencies (and I even see papers on the fact that infra sound could cause undesirable effects). I am having some trouble reconciling these two notions of frequencies. The frequency is a result of the vibrations of the atoms (apologies for the oversimplification) so should there not be just one frequency per object. If the atoms of a cell vibrate at a particular frequency in order to generate the propagating field, should there not be just one frequency? How could there be two different frequencies for a particular cell?
Also, am I right in assuming that resonance could occur at both frequencies.
The frequency of the human body can be calculated based on weins law as follows:
Wavelength = 0.002898/310 = 0.00000934838 m
Plugging this into the equation λν = c we get
frequency = 299792458 / 0.00000934838 = 32069 Ghz
Elsewhere, I see that the resonant frequencies of the human body (e.g the ocular cavity) are at around 20 Hz. I assume this is physical vibrational frequencies (and I even see papers on the fact that infra sound could cause undesirable effects). I am having some trouble reconciling these two notions of frequencies. The frequency is a result of the vibrations of the atoms (apologies for the oversimplification) so should there not be just one frequency per object. If the atoms of a cell vibrate at a particular frequency in order to generate the propagating field, should there not be just one frequency? How could there be two different frequencies for a particular cell?
Also, am I right in assuming that resonance could occur at both frequencies.