- #1
muzialis
- 166
- 1
Hello,
I am struggling to understand why L1 is not weakly compact, while Lp, p>1, is.
The example I have seen put forward is the function u_n (x) = n if x belongs to (0, 1/n), 0 otherwise, the function being defined on (0,1).
It is shown this u_n converging to the Dirac measure, and this shows L1 not being weakly compact (as integrating u_n times the charactersitic function of the interval yields 1 as a result, while the result is zero for a function which is zero at the boundary.
I can not see why this should not happen for Lp, p > 1 too. In the attached short notes there is an example after which (pag. 6) it is stated that this function converges weakly to zero in Lp.
I can not understand this.
Many thanks
Regards
I am struggling to understand why L1 is not weakly compact, while Lp, p>1, is.
The example I have seen put forward is the function u_n (x) = n if x belongs to (0, 1/n), 0 otherwise, the function being defined on (0,1).
It is shown this u_n converging to the Dirac measure, and this shows L1 not being weakly compact (as integrating u_n times the charactersitic function of the interval yields 1 as a result, while the result is zero for a function which is zero at the boundary.
I can not see why this should not happen for Lp, p > 1 too. In the attached short notes there is an example after which (pag. 6) it is stated that this function converges weakly to zero in Lp.
I can not understand this.
Many thanks
Regards