- #1
truffaldino
- 17
- 0
Hello,
Recently it has been announced on the web that a progessor from Kazakstan has solved the Clay institute millenium problem showing existence of strong solution of Navier-Stokes (see eg https://github.com/myw/navier_stokes_translate).
I do not know if it is true or not, but reading introduction to his article I got an elementary question.
He says that the proof of existence for a liquid initially at rest u(x, t=0)=0 subject of action of sufficiently smooth force is equivalent to existence for starting with non-zero sufficiently smooth initial data (as required by the Clay Institute).
From the intuitive (physical) point of view that looks obvious (the system with smooth solutions can be driven to any desired state by properly chosen force).
But what is the formal proof (must be something elementary).
Thanks
Recently it has been announced on the web that a progessor from Kazakstan has solved the Clay institute millenium problem showing existence of strong solution of Navier-Stokes (see eg https://github.com/myw/navier_stokes_translate).
I do not know if it is true or not, but reading introduction to his article I got an elementary question.
He says that the proof of existence for a liquid initially at rest u(x, t=0)=0 subject of action of sufficiently smooth force is equivalent to existence for starting with non-zero sufficiently smooth initial data (as required by the Clay Institute).
From the intuitive (physical) point of view that looks obvious (the system with smooth solutions can be driven to any desired state by properly chosen force).
But what is the formal proof (must be something elementary).
Thanks