- #1
member 428835
Hi PF!
A text states that the following two functions
$$
\psi^o_k = \sin(\pi(k-1/2)x)\cosh(\pi(k-1/2)(z+h)): k\in\mathbb{N},\\
\psi^e_k = \cos(\pi kx)\cosh(\pi k(z+h)): k\in\mathbb{N}
$$
each form complete orthogonal systems in two mutually orthogonal subspaces, which compose the Hilbert space.
Can someone explain this to me? Why are these orthogonal systems? Specifically, ##\int_0^1 \psi^e_k \psi^o_k \, dx \neq 0##. And why is it that each by itself does not form a Hilbert space but together they do (is it because they are orthogonal systems, one cannot form a Hilbert space unless at least the other is present too)?
A text states that the following two functions
$$
\psi^o_k = \sin(\pi(k-1/2)x)\cosh(\pi(k-1/2)(z+h)): k\in\mathbb{N},\\
\psi^e_k = \cos(\pi kx)\cosh(\pi k(z+h)): k\in\mathbb{N}
$$
each form complete orthogonal systems in two mutually orthogonal subspaces, which compose the Hilbert space.
Can someone explain this to me? Why are these orthogonal systems? Specifically, ##\int_0^1 \psi^e_k \psi^o_k \, dx \neq 0##. And why is it that each by itself does not form a Hilbert space but together they do (is it because they are orthogonal systems, one cannot form a Hilbert space unless at least the other is present too)?