Will ##M_i = m_i## if an interval is made vanishingly small?

In summary, if the length of an interval [x_{i-1}, x_i] is made vanishingly small, then the supremum and infimum values of f(x) over that interval will approach each other, but they are not necessarily equal. This can be seen by considering a continuous function on a nested sequence of subsets, where the supremum and infimum values decrease and increase, respectively, but may not converge to the same limit.
  • #1
Adesh
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TL;DR Summary
If I have an interval ##[x_{i-1}, x_i]## and if it's length ##x_i - x_{i-1}## is made as small as we desire then will we have ##M_i = m_i##?
We define :
$$M_i = sup \{f(x) : x \in [x_{i-1}, x_i ] \}$$
$$m_i = inf \{f(x) : x \in [ x_{i-1}, x_i ] \}$$
Now, if we make the length of the interval ##[x_{i-1}, x_i]## vanishingly small, then would we have ##M_i = m_i##? I have reasons for believing so because as the size of the interval is decreasing we will be having less choice for ##inf## and ##sup## and therefore ##inf## will increase and ##sup## will decrease, so can we made them arbitrarily close by taking a sufficiently small lengthed interval?

Thank You.
 
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  • #2
Adesh said:
Now, if we make the length of the interval ##[x_{i-1}, x_i]## vanishingly small,

There is no such thing in real analysis. Heuristically, in physics we can take things to be "vanishingly small", but not in the rigorous mathematics of ##sup## and ##inf##.
 
  • #3
PeroK said:
There is no such thing in real analysis. Heuristically, in physics we can take things to be "vanishingly small", but not in the rigorous mathematics of ##sup## and ##inf##.
Can’t we make ##gap~P## as small as we want by adding more and more points?
 
  • #4
Adesh said:
Can’t we make ##gap~P## as small as we want by adding more and more points?
Yes, but it's still always a finite interval.
 
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  • #5
PeroK said:
Yes, but it's still always a finite interval.
Will that affect the difference ##M_i - m_i##?
 
  • #6
Adesh said:
Will that affect the difference ##M_i - m_i##?
Affect it in what way? You have ##sup \ f ## and ##inf \ f## on a finite interval.
 
  • #7
PeroK said:
Affect it in what way? You have ##sup \ f ## and ##inf \ f## on a finite interval.
My thinking says that as intevral's length gets shorter and shorter the difference ##M_i - m_i## will get smaller and smaller. Is that true?
 
  • #8
Adesh said:
My thinking says that as intevral's length gets shorter and shorter the difference ##M_i - m_i## will get smaller and smaller. Is that true?
Not necessarily. If one interval is a subset of another then the difference between sup and inf cannot be greater for the subset. But, the difference between sup and inf might stay the same.
 
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  • #9
PeroK said:
If one interval is a subset of another then the difference between sup and inf cannot be greater for the subset.
Won't the difference going to decrease for the subset? It may stay the same or it may decrease because for a very very small interval our function will have very few choice for inf and sup.
 
  • #10
Adesh said:
Won't the difference going to decrease for the subset? It may stay the same or it may decrease because for a very very small interval our function will have very few choice for inf and sup.
Any open interval, no matter how small, is analytically equivalent to the set of all real numbers. There's really no such thing as a "small" interval. You need to rethink your approach to this mathematics.
 
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  • #11
Adesh said:
My thinking says that as intevral's length gets shorter and shorter the difference ##M_i - m_i## will get smaller and smaller. Is that true?

"gets shorter and shorter"?

Your are thinking about a process, presumably taking place in time and in a sequence of steps. You need to look at ##L_M = lim_{i \rightarrow \infty} M_i ## Trying to talk about ##M_i## as if it is one specific number defined for one specific index and then saying it also changes is a contradiction.
 
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  • #12
Adesh said:
Summary:: If I have an interval [xi−1,xi] and if it's length xi−xi−1 is made as small as we desire then will we have Mi=mi?

We define :
Mi=sup{f(x):x∈[xi−1,xi]}
mi=inf{f(x):x∈[xi−1,xi]}
Now, if we make the length of the interval [xi−1,xi] vanishingly small, then would we have Mi=mi? I have reasons for believing so because as the size of the interval is decreasing we will be having less choice for inf and sup and therefore inf will increase and sup will decrease, so can we made them arbitrarily close by taking a sufficiently small lengthed interval?

Thank You.

If [itex]f[/itex] is continuous then for every [itex]\epsilon > 0[/itex] there exists a [itex]\delta > 0[/itex] such that if [itex]x_i - x_{i-1} < \delta[/itex] then [itex]M_i - m_i < \epsilon[/itex]. This is a simple consequence of the definition and the fact that a function which is continuous on a closed bounded interval attains its bounds.

If [itex]\{A_n\}[/itex] is a sequence of nested subsets such that [itex]A_{n+1} \subsetneq A_n[/itex] then [itex]f(A_{n+1}) \subset f(A_n)[/itex]. Hence [itex]\sup f(A_{n+1}) \leq \sup f(A_n)[/itex] as removing points from a set might decrease its upper bound but cannot possibly increase it. Similarly [itex]\inf f(A_{n+1}) \geq \inf f(A_n)[/itex]. However the limits don't have to be equal: consider [tex]
f : \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R} : x \mapsto \begin{cases}
-1 & x < 0 \\
0 & x = 0 \\
1 & x > 0 \end{cases}[/tex] with [itex]A_n = [-\frac1n, \frac1n][/itex]. Here [itex]\inf f(A_n) = -1[/itex] and [itex]\sup f(A_n) = 1[/itex] for every [itex]n[/itex].
 
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  • #13
I also found (from someone’s help) signum function is counter example to my claim. Let ##f## be a signum function then any interval containing zero, no matter how small will ##M_i -m_i =2##.
 
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  • #14
The signum function is just the tip of the iceberg. It can be solved with some restrictions on the choice of the ##x_i##. But there are more difficult examples. Consider the function which is 0 for rational numbers and 1 for irrational numbers. This will eventually lead to an entirely new definition of integration (Lebesque integration) that is applicable to a much larger set of functions.

You should not worry about Lebesque integration now. It is mostly for theoretical use. For now, consider how things work with continuous or piecewise continuous functions.
 
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  • #15
FactChecker said:
The signum function is just the tip of the iceberg. It can be solved with some restrictions on the choice of the ##x_i##. But there are more difficult examples. Consider the function which is 0 for rational numbers and 1 for irrational numbers. This will eventually lead to an entirely new definition of integration (Lebesque integration) that is applicable to a much larger set of functions.

You should not worry about Lebesque integration now. It is mostly for theoretical use. For now, consider how things work with continuous or piecewise continuous functions.
Okay, I shall work with continuous or piecewise continuous functions for now. Thank you.
 

1. Will ##M_i = m_i## if an interval is made vanishingly small?

It depends on the context in which the interval is being used. In some cases, the values of ##M_i## and ##m_i## may converge as the interval becomes smaller, but in other cases, they may not. It is important to consider the specific variables and equations involved to determine if they will be equal.

2. What is the significance of making an interval vanishingly small?

Making an interval vanishingly small is often done in mathematics and science to approach a more precise or accurate result. It allows for a closer examination of the behavior of a function or system, and can provide insights into its properties.

3. How does the size of the interval affect the values of ##M_i## and ##m_i##?

The size of the interval can have a significant impact on the values of ##M_i## and ##m_i##. As the interval becomes smaller, the values may converge or diverge, depending on the specific equation or system being analyzed. It is important to consider the behavior of the function or system as the interval size changes.

4. Can the interval be made infinitely small?

In theory, yes, the interval can be made infinitely small. However, in practice, it is often limited by the precision of the measuring tools or the limitations of the mathematical or scientific system being used. As the interval approaches zero, it may become increasingly difficult to accurately measure or analyze.

5. Are there any limitations to making an interval vanishingly small?

Yes, there are limitations to making an interval vanishingly small. As mentioned before, it may be limited by the precision of the measuring tools or the capabilities of the mathematical or scientific system being used. Additionally, as the interval becomes smaller, it may also introduce errors or uncertainties due to rounding or approximation. It is important to consider these limitations when using a vanishingly small interval in calculations or analyses.

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