Oh, man... I must be tired :) The original problem was not posted like this. I did not realize that the 2D integration area was infact the upper triangle of the square [0,1]^2. I thought I was dealing with the hole square... Stupid me :)
Then of course it is easy.
Thanks
I guess I have made it more difficult then it really is. I just want to know why the second integration domain turns out like that. For simplicity put \frac{1}{t}|f(t)| = t for example (and t\in (0,a)). Then the integration area becomes
\int_0^a\int_x^a t dtdx = \int_?^?\int_?^?t dxdt
Why?
Hi, I usually don't have any problems with Fubini's theorem, but there is something I just can't figure out. Let f be integrable, and a some positive constant. How do i apply the theorem to this integral:
\int_0^a\int_x^a \frac{1}{t}|f(t)|dtdx
Really; I know the answer is
\int_0^a \int_0^t...
Im in my third year now, and i never really heard the formal definition on this before. I came across the words in a book and i just wondered what they ment.
But anyway, this seams like a very good site.
Hi, can anyone tell me what a surjective mapping between Hilbertspaces is? That is: what does surjective mean? What about bijective?
I mean what is special about a mapping if it is sujective or bijective?