Recent content by BPMead

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    Find the wave function of a particle bound in a semi-infinite square well

    Ah! You're right. So what I got was: A12∫sin2(k1x)dx + A12sin2(k1a)/e2ik2a∫eik2xdx = 1 That works out to: 1 = A12[a/2 - (1/4)sin(2k1a) - sin2(k1a)/(ik2eik2a)] Is that the right way to get A1?
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    Find the wave function of a particle bound in a semi-infinite square well

    Okay, if we are going to include trig functions anyway, there is a simpler way that I saw to set this up: ψ1 = A1sin(k1x) + B1cos(k1x) Since ψ1(0) = 0, B1 = 0 So: ψ1 = A1sin(k1x) ψ2 = A2eik2x Since ψ1(a) = ψ2(a): A2 = A1sin(k1a) / eik2a Now normalize to find constants...
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    Find the wave function of a particle bound in a semi-infinite square well

    Okay, when I solve that system of equations, I get: A1 = B2e-ik2a / (eik1a - e-ik1a) B1 = -B2e-ik2a / (eik1a - e-ik1a) Plugging these into normalize: Let j = e-ik2a / (eik1a - e-ik1a) jB22∫eik1x - e-ik1xdx + B2∫e-ik2x = 1 Then I get jB2/ik1 [eik1a-eik2(0)] - jB2/-ik1 [e-ik1(a) - e-ik1(0)] +...
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    Find the wave function of a particle bound in a semi-infinite square well

    Thank you so much for your response! I can see why you would define k2 that way, I guess I kept it imaginary so that ψ1 and ψ2 would have a similar format. The way I defined them should still theoretically work right? Or do I have to change it? So I should solve in terms of one constant, but...
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    Find the wave function of a particle bound in a semi-infinite square well

    Homework Statement Consider the semi-infinite square well given by V(x) = -V0 < 0 for 0≤ x ≤ a and V(x) = 0 for x > a. There is an infinite barrier at x = 0 (hence the name "semi-infinite"). A particle with mass m is in a bound state in this potential with energy E ≤ 0. Solve the Schrodinger...
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    Solving a tricky integral to normalize a wave function

    Yep that's right, and I finally got a response from my prof, evidently this is called the gamma function and you do have to look it up. Thanks so much for your help though!
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    Solving a tricky integral to normalize a wave function

    Thanks for your response! Darn, that is something we have little experience with and my teacher made it sound like we should know how to evaluate this. So since this integral runs from -infinity to infinity, would I double the integral from 0 to infinity? The fact that this can't be solved...
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    Solving a tricky integral to normalize a wave function

    Homework Statement A particle of mass m is moving in one dimension in a potential V(x,t). The wave function for the particle is: ψ = Axe^([-sqrt(km)/2h_bar]*x^2)e^([-isqrt(k/m)]*3t/2). For -infinitity < x < infinity, where k and A are constants. Normalize this wave function. Homework...
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