To Dr Greg: Sir, Why did you block my question? It was a simple one before (perhaps I said too much. It was and remains, "does anyone know the answer as to what GR says about the relative velocity between free falling objects in non-homogeneous gravity fields when the objects are co-linear."...
Note that I have as a model co-linear objects in free-fall, not parallel ones, so there are no geodesic deviations as you quote them. Of course tidal forces exist in both Newtonian physics and GR. Read my answer to Dr Greg. In any event, thanks for commenting. Davidf
I buy GR hook line and sinker as an "almost" perfect description of the way gravity works. Neither Einstein nor Newton addressed the causes for their descriptions that more or less agree for low velocities and not great distances. What I am addressing is the "cause" for gravity and somethings...
I know the answer in Newtonian physics is the difference velocity is time variant because the "non homogeneous field" exists for both objects. I think this would also be true in GR if the only difference between GR and Newton's view was that the "field" is replaced by "space-time curvature"...
No, it is related to a somewhat different take on GR. It is not an alternate theory, but more related to what Feynman called the machinery of gravity. I believe the correct answer is such a measurement would show the velocity measured as described to be time invariant, but what I don't know...
Can anyone answer this question: In the context of GR, If two objects are in collinear free fall, far enough apart so that the field intensity differs for each object, and one measures the relative velocity between the objects in the coordinate system of the objects using (say) a radar system...