Recent content by gregthenovelist

great, makes sense!

Great, that helps a lot. So, if we cannot combine them into a universal set (in this case rationals or reals), we cannot get an intersection. Thus, the equivalence principle would fail as it is in logical terms the same as the union of the two sets. Is my reasoning correct here?

This is exactly my question. why can we not even ask this question if they are in different sample spaces?

It is a theorem that: two propositions implying each other, in the sense that the set of outcomes making one true is the same as the one making the other true) have the same probability. this comes from the fact that if p --> q, the P(p&q) = P(p), we have that if p <-> q, then P(p&q) = P(p)=...