The question was just if a^iπ = a -\left( \frac 1 a\right)? Is there someone who can explain it to me? LaTeX does not seem to work from the device I am using, therefore I can not improve my questions your majesty. I was just looking for an answer to a simple question.:thumbup:
I was wondering if there is a way to get a positive integer to be negative after purely powering it by a certain value, and since euler’s identity is the only thing I could find which gave a negative result after a power, I wondered if imaginary numbers are able to have such qualities. I don’t...
for any integer a * - 1/a = -1 so why isnt e^pi*i the same as the formula a *-1/a? since it has the same outcome? im not a math major, im in highschool i was just curious.
since euler's identity states e^pi*i+-1 is it okay to write down e^pi*= e * -1/e = -1 and would for integers the same rule apply where a^pi*i= a * -1/a = -1 or is it only for the constant e?
this might be a stupid question, but i cant find an answer and im curious