Recent content by jys34

honestly, I don't understand what you are saying because your statement imply m'(t) = m_r (t^{-1} \mu_{0}), then, m'(t) is just renormalized mass at some particular scale t \mu_{0}. However, in your last comment, I thought that you mean both of them ( m'(t) and m_r(t \mu_{0}) ) are physical...

Thanks for your help, andrien. I did understand your mention. Can I ask some more questions? the final equation for t \frac{\partial m'}{\partial t} = t \frac{\partial (t^{-1} m_r )}{\partial t} means that t \frac{\partial m_r}{\partial t} = \gamma_{m} m_r , and under momentam scaling p...

I mean that the momentum scaling p → bp, x → x/b in action (without quantum correction) can give scaling contribution (as eq (63)-(69), (91) in Shankar's review) and with quantum correction (upto one-loop), we can get additional term as eq (97) in Shankar's review. However, It seems to be...

Thanks for comments, but I'm still confused because many references have two different answers for mass running.. In Shankar's famous RMP (http://rmp.aps.org/abstract/RMP/v66/i1/p129_1)(or cond-mat/9307009) the derivation of mass (or chemical potential) scaling at tree-level can be found...

Hi, I'm studying about Renormalization group. I have a question about mass beta-function. Usually, when we perform one-loop calculation to get counter-term coefficients, resulting RG coefficient for mass scaling is given by \mu \frac{d m}{d \mu} = a_1 (e ) m and a_1(e) is come from...

Hello, I'm studying the Lorentz group and their properties... and I have some question for them.. Peskin's text(p496) said that "we are primarily interested in Lie algebras that have finite-dimensional Hermitian representations, leading to finite-dimensional unitary representations of the...