Recent content by kingturtle

Yes exactly. All I want to know is if it is remotely possible to deliver the same solution by explicitly summing up the series, or splitting the series into seemingly identifiable products. Anyways, I think the approach that we have with us should do it for now. Thank you so much !

Yes, that's right. But is there any way to show this algebraically, and not by jumping directly to the form of the Bessel function per se.

If you are trying to point to e^{-x} by any chance, then let me bring to your attention the powers that are present over the factorial terms, which unlike e^{-x} are not equal to one. Or else, I am too ignorant to "see" anything substantial for now. :confused: Thanks for replying!

Homework Statement \begin{equation} 1 - x + \frac{x^2}{(2!)^2} - \frac{x^3}{(3!)^2} + \frac{x^4}{(4!)^2} +... = 0 \nonumber \end{equation} Homework Equations To find out the power series in the LHS of the given equation. The Attempt at a Solution I have tried to solve it by...