The absolute value does not converge.
\sum_{n=2}^\infty\frac{1}{ln(n)}>=\sum_{n=2}^{\infty}\frac{1}{x-1}
So i think we can't use that
(i write right the infinity but it always put a space between)
Sequence Convergence
\sum_{n=2}^\infty\frac{(-1)^n}{ln(n)}
I have tried some comparisons bot not conclude:
\sum_{n=2}^\infty\frac{(-1)^n}{ln(n)}<=\sum_{n=2}^\infty\frac{(-1)^n}{1}
\sum_{n=2}^\infty\frac{(-1)^n}{x-1}<=\sum_{n=2}^\infty\frac{(-1)^n}{ln(n)}
Somebody having any insights...
The numerator should be zero.
So we have: f(2)-5=0 Am i right?
Something about before,
Why you said that there are infinite number of functions f that can satisfy that limit?
One is f(x)=5(x-1), can you give me another example?
Thank you
I have the limit:
\lim_{x\rightarrow +2} {\frac{f(x)-5}{x-2}}=5
And i want to find the:
\lim_{n\rightarrow +2} {f(x)}
Can i say that f(x)-5=5*(x-2)
And then find the limit?
Thank you