Recent content by mrbean

Well, correct me if I am mistaken, but it's just needed to prove that such a function c exists, and no more. And the mean value theorem does that, right?

I've a question concerning spivak's proof of L'Hopital's rule (in chapter 11). It goes like this, lim (x tends to a) of f = 0 lim (x tends to a) of g = 0 lim (x tends to a) of f'/g' exists, then, lim (x tends to a) f/g exists and is equal to lim (x tends to a) of f'/g' He...

Is this the right negation of a finite limit? \neg(\lim_{x\to a}f(x)=L) \iff \exists \epsilon>0 \forall \delta>0\exists x: 0<|x-a|<\delta \Rightarrow |f(x)-L|\geq\epsilon \vee \neg\exists f(x) Thanks.