don't mind the index... its there, because it sets the infinity on top of the SUM OF: and sets the n=1 down below it... any clues...
there not homework... extra credit
I really need someone to answer this by tomorrow 12/01 10:50 am pacific time...
1) Derive the following, for any integer k.
infinity
SUM OF: 1/(n^(2k)) = ((2(pi))^(2k)(-1)^(k+1)B2k ) /(2(2k)!)
n=1
where Bn is defined by the following, for |x| < 2(pi).
````````````infinity
(x)/(e^(x)-1)...