Recent content by n_kelthuzad

I'm not a physicist! Just wondering what it is like on the edge of the universe? how many dimensions will be there, what force will be acted upon a close object, and what relativity will become? I'm assuming the universe is euclidian (eucklidean? euclidean? my English sucks.) not hyperbolic or...

ok I just got a kinda 'crazy' idea that would explain the arithmetic paradox. if say, ∞/∞=A and 0/0=A; pick 2 random numbers from A, just 2 and 3; so ∞/∞=2 ∞/∞=3 0/0=2 0/0=3 however 2\neq3; ∞/∞=2\neq3=∞/∞; so ∞/∞\neq∞/∞, same goes for 0/0\neq0/0 so is it possible to say that: ∞\neq∞...

Question: as title says. I'm not a physicist at all and I do not know much about how people obtained the big bang theory from red shift. So here is what I thought from red shift: In a time period t1, a distant body emits a light wave with a certain amount of energy with n oscilations(I don't...

Is there an alternative symbol that can be used instead of '=', for a different logical expression? a=b means a and b are equivalent in quantity, however infinity and 0 are not ordinary quantities?

I can see that infinity does not 'equal' to infinity (inf/inf=A) but does 0 'equal' to 0? (0/0=A)! there are values other than 1 in A, then is 0=0 false? Trying to find a equation to explain it.

But the problem for me is that I use computer in many different places, and I can't even read my own writing

I am so dumb. Used the hard way to do all the things. Because 1^inf=A then for any number n, n^inf=A because n^inf=n^inf * 1^inf =n^inf * A

let there be y=0*x there are 4 value ranges on the real plane: I. x<0 y=inf II. x=0 y=A III. x>0 y=0 IV. x=inf y=A as we can see here the value of y is like a sine wave; (Although A is not a number.) inf --> A --> 0 --> A --> inf --> A ... so, does A represent a intermediate range of...

1.047/pi≈1/3 1/3*pi=pi/3

The red part is the wrong part. By reverse you use e as a index for exponentiation, so let's say : ln a = ln b - c e^(ln a) = e^(ln b - c) u got your exponentialtion wrong.

This is very strange... ∞/0 =(n/0)/0 =n*(0^-2) =n/0 =∞ 0/∞ =(n/∞)/∞ =n*(∞^-2) =n*0 =0 And from that , ∞^∞=A and 0^∞=A

so if those things are true, then many of the limits can be viewed in a different perspective. e.g. lim->infinity (1+1/m)^m=e u couldn't just substitute m=infinity into the equation; however if we do that: (1+0)^infinity=e 1^infinity=e it makes sense now since e is a member of A.

thinking from the Riemann Sphere: can the real projective line be described as a circular graph? So all the arithmetic calculations can be done via angular calculations, and 0 or infinity would have a unique angle from the axis?

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Real_projective_line https://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?t=591892 https://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?t=592694 https://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?t=530207 Read these first before you criticize me...

now I look at my answer I got confused... cause the formula does not contain b so it is wrong?