Still hasn't clicked yet.
I know the force is gravity. Would you calculate the force using acting on the rod as sin(60 degrees)*(moment of inertia)*9.8?
I did that... but I can't help but feel I am at a dead end. I'm not sure why I find this problem so confounding lol. It probably will...
I am still struggling. To calculate the torque don't I need the applied force? And to find the applied force don't I need the acceleration of the rod?
Sorry, physics is definitely a weak area of mine! Any more help would be appreciated!
I've attempted this problem several times and keep getting 14 rads as the answer but its not an available answer choice... any help would be greatly appreciated.
The problem:
A uniform rod (mass = 2.0 kg, length = 0.6 m) is free to rotate about a frictionless pivot at one end. The rod is...