Recent content by pero2912

Hello, as a non-physicist enthusiast, but with decent math background, I tried to learn a bit about origins of quantum theory and very soon raised some questions, which I hope this community will answer. So, Planck tried to model the blackbody radiation on where Raighley and Jeans have failed...

This is what I got after watching some documentaries: Acording to the general theory of relativity, gravity is curvature of space-time caused by the massive objects. It was explained that it is not a force in a sense that it acts between two bodies, but it curves the space and the bodies are...

My personal favorite for beginners: Introduction to Quantum Mechanics, by D.Griffiths Very nice and intuitive guide though all the key concepts of quantum mechanics, especially in the first two chapters where it becomes clear what QM is actually all about! It also provides numerous examples...

Uhm, sorry, but I don't get it.. I thought, that electron moves within the "probability cloud" around the nucleus and so creates EM wave...

Basic leak in Rutherford's model of atom was that electron would emit energy while orbiting around nucleus and this energy loss would lead to electron's spiraling to the nucleus and collapse of both atom and atom model. Then Niels Bohr came with the idea that electron exists only in discrete...

ok, it was wrong choice of words on my side. edited now.

As far as I understood the relativity: 1. Massless particles travel at the speed of light. 2. As the speed increases, so does the mass of the moving body. It goes to infinite as the speed gets close to that of light. My questions: Why would particles with infinite mass (theoretically)...

Is there any intuitive analogy to the EM fields in gravity? I mean, in EM you have two fields, magnetic and electric where one's change produces other's. Is it something similar in GE?

Today, all of the scientific world (including /r/physics) buzzes about BICEP2's discovery of gravitational waves dating from Big Bang as an undispute confirmation of the general relativity. Now I wonder is it really GR? Can't it be explained by simple Newton's mechanics? I mean if you can...

Yes. But keep in mind that this difference is about few ppm. Insignificant on the long scale but still fair enough for NMR phenomenon.

it is not equally likely. There is greater chance for spin to be aligned parallel to the field than antiparallel.

Funny thing is that you can make a compass needle lay in oposite direction to the external field if you are precise enough. It is just a state where torque of the field B on the moment μ is zero: \vec{τ} = \vec{B} x \vec{μ} ! The same is with protons, but you don't have to be precise cause this...

Thanks for the help guys, you made thing have more sense. But one more question remains undiscussed:

So I was thinking about similarities in the nature between these two which could justify similarity in the nomenclature. So, diamagnetic materials are those whose atoms do not have permanent magnetic dipols, so when you apply magnetic force on them, they create local dipole oriented...