Are gravitational waves relativistic or Newtonian phenomenon?

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SUMMARY

The forum discussion centers on the nature of gravitational waves, specifically questioning whether they can be explained through Newtonian mechanics or if they are inherently a relativistic phenomenon as supported by the BICEP2 discovery. Participants assert that gravitational waves, which represent energy loss from orbiting bodies, cannot be reconciled with Newtonian gravity, which conserves energy and angular momentum. The discussion emphasizes that gravitational waves are a purely relativistic result, lacking any analogous framework in Newtonian mechanics, and highlights the necessity of field theory to predict wave equations for wave-like solutions to exist.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of General Relativity and its implications on gravitational phenomena
  • Familiarity with Newtonian mechanics and its limitations regarding gravity
  • Knowledge of electromagnetic theory, particularly the relationship between electric and magnetic fields
  • Basic concepts of gravitoelectromagnetism and its relevance to gravitational waves
NEXT STEPS
  • Research the implications of the BICEP2 discovery on the understanding of the Big Bang and cosmic inflation
  • Study the mathematical framework of General Relativity, focusing on gravitational wave solutions
  • Explore gravitoelectromagnetism and its comparison to electromagnetic theory
  • Investigate the role of energy loss in gravitational wave emission from orbiting bodies
USEFUL FOR

Physicists, astrophysicists, and students of theoretical physics interested in the implications of gravitational waves and the distinctions between Newtonian and relativistic frameworks of gravity.

pero2912
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Today, all of the scientific world (including /r/physics) buzzes about BICEP2's discovery of gravitational waves dating from Big Bang as an undispute confirmation of the general relativity. Now I wonder is it really GR? Can't it be explained by simple Newton's mechanics?
I mean if you can explain electromagnetic waves as as a consequence of accelerating charge then sure you can expalain gravitational waves as a consequence of the accelerating mass.
 
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pero2912 said:
I mean if you can explain electromagnetic waves as as a consequence of accelerating charge then sure you can expalain gravitational waves as a consequence of the accelerating mass.
Surely not. Gravitation is instantaneous in Newtonian mechanics. There is nothing in the Newtonian description of gravity that allows for gravitational waves.

Another way to look at it: Gravitational waves represent energy lost to the universe by orbiting bodies. This doesn't happen in Newtonian mechanics, where gravitationally orbiting bodies conserve energy and angular momentum.
 
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Is there any intuitive analogy to the EM fields in gravity? I mean, in EM you have two fields, magnetic and electric where one's change produces other's. Is it something similar in GE?
 
I believe I shouldn't be asking a question under another question but... since the discovery of g waves was brought up...I didn't see the point in opening another thread. My question is this: Why is the discovery of gravitational waves being considered irrefutable proof for the theory of inflation? Are other theory's that include g waves now considered validated? (fecetious) tia
 
pero2912 said:
I mean if you can explain electromagnetic waves as as a consequence of accelerating charge then sure you can expalain gravitational waves as a consequence of the accelerating mass.

EM is a relativistic theory, not a Newtonian theory. The field theory needs to predict wave equations for the fields to satisfy (e.g. in vacuum) in order for wave-like solutions to exist for the theory. EM does this but Newtonian gravity does not.
 
I don't think the primary source claims anything about proving inflation, so anything to that extent is probably added by bloggers.
 

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