Suppose there are two parallel universes exactly alike down to infintesimally small particles positions and momentums. If we then performed the exact same double slit experiment in both universes and achieved different results, would this constitute the "randomness" you speak of?
N.B.-- I...
My bad. It must be clear by now I am no physicist; I am more informed about philosophy, which I admit is not as interesting. I think I meant to use the term "spontaneous particle creation."
So... my revised question is: How is hard determinism defensible when we consider spontaneous particle...