yes it does
\prod_{i=1}^{I}\sum_{n}\frac{1}{n^2} = \left(\sum_{n}\frac{1}{n^2}\right)(\ldots) = \left(\frac{\pi^2}{6}\right)^I \ne \sum_{n}\left(\frac{1}{n^2}\right)^I
anyway, that's missing the point. We know this is not general. but is/are there any occasions when it can be done?
Hi this the first time I've got completely stuck and need some advice. I'm trying repeat a (supposedly simple) derivation that appeared in a recently published paper. The details are not important, but I am stuck on a part of that calculation that they skip over.
They have a finite product...