Recent content by Solarfall

I wasn't offended, I was kidding. Thanks.

I'm not sure if you are calling me a Neanderthal or a mathematician, or both for that matter. I think language and maths are more closely related than you are pointing to here though. The language itself doesn't imply anything, it is the user of the language that does this. I'm very glad...

I was taking the converse of the contrapositive, not the converse of the original statement. Thank you for your input!

In this case the converse of the contrapositive of the statement was in fact false, and was how I analysed it! My bad for confusing you!

I hate distance learning maths. Sorry but I really didn't want to accept the textbook answer as it really didn't answer the questions I was after. But I got what I wanted. Thanks!

'or' seems to imply only one of these two statements("x!=0 or y!=0") need to be true, and that one of the variables can in fact be equal to zero. In which case "xy=0". But, if then I concede completely... Thanks a lot Hurkyl, someone with a deeper understanding is what I needed here...

Dude, I think I love you. No seriously, I really needed that. And I think I'm done with maths. What is more abstract then maths? Sigh, I KNEW I should have just gone and studied philosophy...

How can you say what the statement SHOULD be? The statement you are referring to is the next in my examples. What would your answer be for the following statement, as is, you can't change it, it is a true statement, always: """ Given: If x=0 and y=0 then xy=0. """ And according to theory...

Okay I'm sorry I got carried away, it's mostly due to the strikes on this forum not really being of any help. This is what the actual example and answer look like. """ Given: If x=0 and y=0 then xy=0. They say the contrapositive(which they say is always true) is: If xy!=0 then x!=0 OR...

Forget about the converse, you are only confusing yourself. @awkward Okay at least you realize you're not formulating exactly the same conditional statement as I am. And although I see exactly what you are saying, the statement that you mention is in fact a completely different statement...

Quote the theory all you want, that doesn't make it true. If "x!=0 or y!=0" implies one of them IS equal to zero, then you agree that xy=0? I mean that is simple. So the question is, does or doesn't "x!=0 or y!=0" imply that one of the values is in actual fact equal to zero. My insight...

This is supposedly basic but it makes no sense to me. The other topic was very old so I decided to just start a new one. Given: If x=0 and y=0 then xy=0. They say the contrapositive(which they say is always true) is: If xy!=0 then x!=0 OR y!=0. But that is exactly false, because...