I'm not in calculus II yet. I haven't learned improper integrals.
I think so. Although, I'm still in Calc I, and I haven't been taught improper integrals. All I've been taught is that if the problem isn't continuous due to a vertical asymptote, it doesn't exist. This problem was on my test...
I was asked to take the integral of (x^4 -x^6) / (x^2) from 0 to 4. Does this exist? Although there is a hole at 0, the limit exists. And the denominator factors out. It's not an asymptote. Please let me know. I can see both reasons why it would and why it wouldn't.