A. Neumaier said:
No. q-expectations are defined and real for any Hermitian linear operator. Self-adjointness is needed only for the spectral theorem, i.e., when referring to the spectrum or spectral projections.
Well, that's the important point, why I think it should be "self-adjoint". If the spectral theorem is not valid, there's no sensible probability interpretation, at least not in the usual sense, and not considering the stricter condition of self-adjointness and sloppily dealing with Hermitean operators as if they were self-adjoint leads to misconceptions and misunderstandings (e.g., in the apparently simple infinite-potential-well model when momentum instead of energy eigenvectors are discussed although there's no self-adjoint momentum operator defined).
Separability is nowhere needed. In fact, interacting quantum field theories typically need nonseparable Hilbert spaces. This can be most easily seen for a simple model, the relativistic massless scalar field in 1+1 dimensions.
Intersting, but doesn't one then run into the trouble with Haag's theorem, which however is of little practical relevance since it only occurs if not regularizing the model by introducing a finite quantization volume. I'm well aware of the fact that from a strictly mathematical point of view there's no proof for the existence of realistic QFTs. For (resummed) perturbative physicists' prescriptions, it's however enough to deal with the models in this non-strict way.
In the thermal interpretation, any observable (thoug I avoid this word) is represented by a function of q-expectations.
But then the question is, how this representation of expectation values is defined, and this has to be also given operationally. At least this point has been clarified a lot in recent years concerning the standard interpretation of QT with generalizing the idealized von Neumann measurements to the description of real-world experiments in terms of the POVM formalism.
For the same reason, I've still no clue what's behind the q-bism interpretation. They claim that the probabilities of QT have meaning for single realizations of an experiment but never give an operational definition of what's measured if nothing is averaged (neither in Gibbs's sense nor in the coarse-graining sense discussed above).
In the thermal interpretation, this holds only for exact measurements of observables defined by self-adjoint operators, i.e., those where the theoretical uncertainty vanishes.
Yes, indeed. That's also the case for traditionally minimally interpreted QT, and it's the starting point for understanding the theory as a physical theory to begin with. First one has to understand the most simple cases to understand the meaning of an interpretation.
The Stern-Gerlach experiment is a very good example for that. It can be treated analytically and exactly for Gaussian wave packets with using the approximate Hamiltonian
$$\hat{H}=\frac{\hat{\vec{p}}^2}{2m} + g_s \mu_B (\vec{B}_0 + \beta z )\hat{s}_z$$
which leads via the dynamics of the Ag atom to an strictly space-##s_z##-entangled state which let's you filter out the definite ##s_z=\pm \hbar/2##-states.
This is however approximate since the magnetic field close to the beam in fact is approximated by $$\vec{B}=\vec{B}_0 + \beta (z \vec{e}_z-y vec{e}_y)$$, and so far I could treat the "perturbation"
$$\hat{V}=-g_s \mu_B \beta y \hat{s}_y$$
only perturbatively, which leads of course to (small) mixing of the "wrong" ##s_z##-states into the regions which are however still approximately pure ##s_z## states.
I don't see, what's lacking with the standard minimal interpretation in this case since it predicts the outcome of measurements, and to do the experiment properly you need some amount of Ag atoms in the beams to accumulate "enough statistics" to be able to see the splitting at all.
So, how would the analogous calculation work with the thermal representation. Since the Hamiltonian is only maximally quadratic in the observables, this must be a pretty simple thing for the thermal interpretation since the Ehrenfest equations of motion for the expectation values are of course just the classical equations of motion for the classical Hamiltonian motion of an uncharged particle with magnetic moment in an as simple as possible approximate magnetic field applicable to the fine beams prepared in the typical textbook experiment.
In Part I, five different forms of Born's rule are distinguished. The universal from looks like (5), but is explicitly related to a mean of measurement results over a large sample. For q-expectations wihout this measurement interpretation, (5) implies no connection to reality,
hence is not an interpretation statement but a definition of what to call a q-expectation. The thermal interpretation of these is as beables,
that can be approximated by measurement results within the limits given by the uncertainty, as defined in eq. (15) of Section 2.4 of Part II.
Yes, 2.4 is precisely why I was misunderstanding your interpretation as being in fact the usual (minimal) interpretation, because you argue with classical phase-space distributions. For me that's already a coarse-grained description, approximating the one-body Wigner functions of many-body systems via the gradient expansion of the corresponding Kadanoff-Baym equations. This is the formal description of an "ensemble average" in the sense that one averages over the mircocopic fluctuations by just "blurring" the observation to the accuracy/resolution of typical macroscopic time and space scales, and thus "averaging" over all fluctuations at the microscopic space-time scales. Of course you don't need to take "ensemble average" in Gibbs's sense literally here. Otherwise we'd never ever have observed classical behavior of single macroscopic (many-body) systems to begin with.
Section 2.1 has a large ratio of formulas to text, and explains the Ehrenfest picture in full detail. The Ehrenfest dynamics for expectations is clearly deerministic.
Yes, and obviously I misinterpreted this section in thinking that, despite the somewhat unusual notation, you just describe usual quantum-theoretical averages. There are however no details given, how one deals with the fact that of course for functions of averages in general you have ##f(\langle A \rangle) \neq \langle f(A) \rangle##. Maybe that's the reason, why I didn't understand the fact that you consider this Lie-algebra formalism for expectation values as the fundamental set postulates, because I always thought you'd need the quantum formalism to define expectation values to begin with. For me expectation values are given by the above quoted trace formula, and as you say, that's not different in your paper I.
The q-expectations in the formal sense, yes, but wihout the interpretation as sample means.
Yes, yes. This will be in Part IV, which answers the remaining critique from Part I and gives a coherent synthesis. It exists in draft form but is not yet ready for making it public. Please wait a few more weeks...
Great! I'm looking forward to it.