Dmitry67 said:
Fra, I am trying to understand your question.
I knew that guy would eventually get someone to confuse the two of us by ending all his posts with "/Fredrik".
Dmitry67 said:
So, you are not sure that a decomposition is possible. Definitely, we know how separate systems spacially, like saying, here is a table, and here is a chair, table ends here, and a chair starts there.
Yes, we can decompose the
real world into systems in an intuitive way, and that suggests that we should look for a theory in which the mathematical model of the universe can be decomposed into mathematical models of the subsystems.
Dmitry67 said:
But we are not sure that we can separate systems in an information space. Entangled particles share the same qbits no matter how far the particles in space are, and as all particles were born sometimes... there are probably entanglement links connecting everything in our Universe like spahetti in a way we can't imagine, so decomposition based on just some location is space is not valid.
Is my understanding correct?
Those things are not what concern me. Consider the standard ("Copenhagenish") formulation of QM, which contains the axiom that if a system is in state |u> (in Hilbert space H
1) and we measure observable B, the probability of result b is
Pu(b)=|<b|u>|2.
Now consider a second system that's isolated from the first, and in state |v> (in Hilbert space H
2), as we measure observable C. The probability of result c is
Pv(c)=|<c|v>|2.
The probability that simultaneous measurements of B and C will yield results b and c is of course
Pu(b)Pv(c)=|<b|u>|2|<c|v>|2 =|<b|u><c|v>|2 =| (<b| ¤ <c|) (|u> ¤ |v>) |2,
where I'm using the symbol ¤ as "tensor product" (LaTeX code "\otimes").
This identity is the reason why we use the tensor product to represent the combined system. In this case, the Hilbert space of the combined system is H=H
1¤H
2. It's very important to realize that this is a consequence of the Born rule.
Now, if we instead start with the axiom that the Hilbert space of the combined system is H, and that its states evolve in time according to the Schrödinger equation, then how can we possibly justify writing H=H
1¤H
2? My answer to that question is that the assumption that we
can write H=H
1¤H
2 is a new axiom in the theory, and it's essentially equivalent to the Born rule.
So it isn't really surprising or at all remarkable that people have been able to derive the Born rule from these
two axioms. What I'm objecting to is that people (not just you, but also e.g. Tegmark and Wikipedia), are claiming that the first axiom is all we need, when they have in fact used an alternative axiom which seems to be equivalent to the one they dropped.