I have a few questions about the Many Worlds Interpretation. I read the article https://plato.stanford.edu/entries/qm-manyworlds/ but was having trouble understanding what the "measure of existence" is supposed to represent in the theory, and why a believer in the idea should adhere to either the probability postulate or the behaviour principle.(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

I can illustrate my confusion through a consideration of a type of event where the probability of outcome A is thought to be 1/3 by non-MWI proponents, and the probability of outcome B is thought to be 2/3.

If the "measure of existence" for outcome A were thought to reflect the proportion of the amount of worlds in which outcome A would occur to the total amount of worlds created by an event, and likewise for outcome B, such that the probability could be thought to reflect the creation of 1 world in which outcome A occurs for every 2 worlds in which outcome B occurs, then I have no problem understanding.

But if the theory suggests that such an event will result in 1 world in which outcome A occurs and 1 world in which outcome B occurs, then I am not clear on why a person should not ignore the probability postulate and behaviour principle. To illustrate, I am not clear on why a person could not bet on a probability of 2/5 for an Event Type A outcome and accept bets on a probability of 3/5 for Event Type B and expect the majority of their descendants to have profited by repetition of such a strategy (a strategy of ignoring the probability postulate and behaviour principle)?

Also, is the MWI the only interpretation which does not have "spooky action at a distance"?

If so (if it does not have spooky action at a distance), how does it explain the non-zero probability amplitude of an electron appearing further than it could have travelled if it travelled at the speed of light?

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# I Many Worlds Interpretation existence

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