Hermitian vs. self-adjoint operators

Heirot
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Hello,

what's the difference between Hermitian and self-adjoint operators? Our professor in Group Theory made a comment once that the two are very similar, but with a subtle distinction (which, of course, he failed to mention :smile: )

Thanks!
 
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Oops... I found the answer. Sorry :redface:
 
Well, what's this subtle distinction?
 
Just make sure you're aware that it's a matter of convention. Most people use the two words to mean the same thing.
 
morphism said:
Most people use the two words to mean the same thing.

While this is true for bounded operators, all the books I have checked on my shelf make a distinction for unbounded operators. According to the books that I have checked, a Hermitian operator is a bounded self-adjoint operator, i.e., all Hermitian operators are self-adjoint, but not all self-adjoint operators are Hermitian.
 
George Jones said:
While this is true for bounded operators, all the books I have checked on my shelf make a distinction for unbounded operators. According to the books that I have checked, a Hermitian operator is a bounded self-adjoint operator, i.e., all Hermitian operators are self-adjoint, but not all self-adjoint operators are Hermitian.

Is this an example of the difference you are talking about, or is it yet another difference?
http://mathworld.wolfram.com/BerryConjecture.html:"...physicists define this operator to be Hermitian, mathematicians do not."
 
atyy said:
Is this an example of the difference you are talking about, or is it yet another difference?
http://mathworld.wolfram.com/BerryConjecture.html:"...physicists define this operator to be Hermitian, mathematicians do not."

Let A be a densely defined linear operator on a Hilbert space. One of the defining properties, *, for all cases is

\left<Ax,y\right> = \left<x,Ay\right>, \ *

where x and y are elements of the Hilbert space.

The text that was used for the functional analysis course that I took as a student makes the following definitions:

A is Hermitian if A is bounded and * is true for every x and y in the Hilbert space;

A is symmetric if * holds for for every x and y in the domain of A;

A is self-adjoint if A is symmetric and the domain of A equals the domain of A^\dagger.

According to these defintions, every Hermitian operator is and self-adjoint, but not all self-adjoint operators are Hemitian. Some books leave off the first definition and call symmetric operators Hermitian. Then, every self-adjoint operator is Hermitian, but not all Hermitian operators are self-adjoint.
MathWorld said:
Note that A is symmetric but might have nontrivial deficiency indices, so while physicists define this operator to be Hermitian, mathematicians do not.

A symmetric (or Hemitian, depending on the terminology used) operator is self-adjoint iff it has trivial deficiency indices. Some physicists and physics references do not distinguish between the above defintions, and use the terms Hermitian and self-adjoint interchangeably to refer to all cases.

If A is unbounded, then the Hilbert space is necessarily infinite-dimensional, and the domain of A need not be all of the Hilbert space. If this is the case and if A is symmetric, then the domain of A is a subset of the domain of A^\dagger, which I have not defined.

In physics, the canonical commutation relation is important. If self-adjoint operators A and B satisfy such a relation, then it is easy to show that at least one of the operators must be unbounded. Suppose it is A. The Hellinger-Toeplitz theorem states any linear operator that satisfies * for all elements of the Hilbert space must bounded. Since A is self-adjoint and unbounded, the domain of physical observable A cannot be all of Hilbert space!

For one consequence of these concepts, see

https://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?t=122063&highlight=dirac.
 
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I know, George you have to be the most interesting person i know, gosh gosh

"what are you going to do today napoleon?"
"whatever the frick i want to do gosh! gosh"
 
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