Why Continuous Functions Don't Preserve Cauchy Sequences

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SUMMARY

Continuous functions do not preserve Cauchy sequences, as demonstrated by the function f(x) = 1/x on the interval (0,1). While uniformly continuous functions maintain this property, normal continuous functions can lead to divergence, particularly when a Cauchy sequence converges to 0. The proof relies on the epsilon-delta definition of continuity and the need for uniform continuity to ensure a single delta works for all x in a given interval.

PREREQUISITES
  • Epsilon-delta definition of continuity
  • Sequential characterization of continuity
  • Understanding of Cauchy sequences
  • Concept of uniform continuity
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the properties of uniformly continuous functions
  • Explore examples of Cauchy sequences and their limits
  • Investigate the implications of the epsilon-delta definition in real analysis
  • Review the function f_n(x) = x^n on the interval [0,1) for further insights
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Mathematics students, educators, and anyone studying real analysis or the properties of continuous functions and Cauchy sequences.

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Homework Statement


Why is it that continuous functions do not necessarily preserve cauchy sequences.


Homework Equations


Epsilon delta definition of continuity
Sequential Characterisation of continuity


The Attempt at a Solution


I can't see why the proof that uniformly continuous functions preserve cauchy sequences doesn't hold for 'normal' continuous functions.
In particular the example of f(x) = 1/x on (0,1)
I have worked through the examples
http://www.mathcs.org/analysis/reals/cont/answers/fcont3.html
and here
http://www.mathcs.org/analysis/reals/cont/answers/contuni4.html

where they address this issue directly, but I can't get my head around it.

I understand that if we have a cauchy sequence converging to 0, then f(xn) is going to diverge to infinity, but I still can't see what the problem is.

Any explanation you can offer would be appreciated.

Kind regards
 
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I like number said:
I understand that if we have a cauchy sequence converging to 0, then f(xn) is going to diverge to infinity, but I still can't see what the problem is.

Recall that Cauchy sequences are bounded. So if \{f(x_n)\}_{n \in \mathbb{N}} diverges, then the sequence cannot be Cauchy. In particular, f does not take Cauchy sequences to Cauchy sequences.
 


The reason that we need uniform continuity is that we need to be able to find one \delta for each \epsilon that works for all x in a certain interval. This is because in the proof, we do a "double triangle inequality." So, if \{f(x_n)\} is a sequence of continuous functions that converges to f(x) for each x in the interval (a,b) then we want to show that \forall \epsilon \exists \delta such that |f(x_0) - f(x)| < \epsilon whenever |x_0 - x| < \delta. We do this by writting:
|f(x_0) - f(x)| = |f(x_0) - f_n(x_0) + f_n(x_0) - f_n(x) + f_n(x_0)-f(x)| \leq<br /> |f(x_0) - f_n(x_0)| + |f_n(x_0) - f_n(x)| + |f_n(x_0)-f(x)|

Now, since the sequence is Cauchy, we can control the outer two terms with a big enough n and make them both less than \epsilon / 3. So, we need to be able to ensure that |f_n(x) - f_n(x_0)| \leq \epsilon / 3 for every x such that |x_0-x|\leq \delta. The only way we can do this is by making f_n uniformly continuous.

As an example, consider the function f_n(x) = x^n on [0,1).
 


Thanks very much to you both.
I think I can see it more clearly now, (and a good nights sleep always helps too!).
I will continue to play around with these ideas and if I have any more questions I'll be back.

Thanks again
 

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