Cone rolling on a conical surface

AI Thread Summary
The discussion focuses on a round cone rolling on a conical surface, where the apex remains stationary, and the center of gravity is at a specific distance from it. The first part of the problem involves calculating the static friction force, which was successfully determined using a free body diagram. For the second part, participants discussed how to find the range of angular velocities (ω) for which the cone rolls without slipping, emphasizing that the friction force must remain below the maximum static friction (kN). If ω exceeds the required range, the cone will slip due to insufficient friction. The relationship established is only valid up to the limiting friction value, beyond which the cone cannot maintain rolling without slipping.
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Homework Statement


A round cone A of mass ##m## and half-angle ##\alpha## rolls uniformly and without slipping along a round conical surface B so that its apex O remains stationary. The centre of gravity of the cone A is at the same level as point O and at a distance ##\ell## from it. The cone's axis moves with angular velocity ##\omega##. Find:
a)the static friction force acting on the cone A
b)at what values of ##\omega##, the cone A will roll without slipping if coefficient of friction between the surfaces is equal to k.


Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution


Part a is easy to solve. I solved it by making an FBD of the cone A. Hence, force due to friction is ##mg(\sin\alpha+(\omega \ell^2/g)\cos \alpha)##.

I don't have any idea about how would I start with b.

Any help is appreciated. Thanks!
 

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Hi Pranav

Since you have solved the first part, second one should be easy for you :smile:

The maximum static friction between the surfaces is kN.The force of friction you have calculated in part A should be less than kN .Find value of N from FBD ,put in the relation and you get values of ω for which the cone doesn't slip .

Hope this helps
 
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Pranav-Arora said:

The Attempt at a Solution


Part a is easy to solve. I solved it by making an FBD of the cone A. Hence, force due to friction is ##mg(\sin\alpha+(\omega \ell^2/g)\cos \alpha)##.

Is that square at the proper place ? :smile:

ehild
 
ehild said:
Is that square at the proper place ? :smile:

ehild

No. Sorry about the typo. :)

Tanya Sharma said:
Hi Pranav

Since you have solved the first part, second one should be easy for you :smile:

The maximum static friction between the surfaces is kN. The force of friction you have calculated in part A should be less than kN .Find value of N from FBD ,put in the relation and you get values of ω for which the cone doesn't slip .

Hope this helps

Thanks, I followed your suggestion and got the right answer. :smile:

But what if ##\omega## becomes greater than required? How would it affect the motion of cone? :confused:
 
Pranav-Arora said:
But what if ##\omega## becomes greater than required? How would it affect the motion of cone? :confused:

The cone rolls with slipping :)
 
Tanya Sharma said:
The cone rolls with slipping :)

I still don't get it. If ##\omega## becomes greater, the force of friction would be greater than kN. But kN is the maximum friction force, how is it possible? :confused:
 
Pranav-Arora said:
I still don't get it. If ##\omega## becomes greater, the force of friction would be greater than kN. But kN is the maximum friction force, how is it possible? :confused:
If ##\omega## becomes greater, the force of friction needed to roll without slipping would be greater than kN. Therefore it will slip, so this greater value of ω is beyond the range.
Note that the question asks not for a single value of ω but for a range of values.
 
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Pranav-Arora said:
I still don't get it. If ##\omega## becomes greater, the force of friction would be greater than kN. But kN is the maximum friction force, how is it possible? :confused:

The maximum friction will be kN .For values of ω,which give value of friction greater than the limiting value ,the cone rolls with slipping .In other words ,values of friction beyond the limiting value is not feasible,hence irrelevant .It cannot increase beyond a certain limit .

The relation between friction and angular velocity which you have obtained is applicable only upto the limiting value i.e kN .

Its the same thing which we do in maths ,like x=3y ,y=N(i.e 1,2,3...),x≤18 .x will be multiple of 3 but the maximum value x can take is 18.
 
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Thank you haruspex and Tanya! :smile:
 
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