MHB 1.8.6 AP calculus Exam continuity

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The expression (2x+1)(x-2)/(x-2) is not identical to (2x+1) because the former is undefined at x=2, creating a hole in its graph. While both expressions yield the same output for x values other than 2, the limit as x approaches 2 exists and equals 5, but the function itself does not have a defined value at that point. This distinction highlights the importance of continuity, which requires that f(c) exists, the limit exists, and both are equal. The discussion emphasizes that the behavior of a function near a point is crucial for understanding continuity, rather than just the function's value at that point. Thus, the two expressions differ fundamentally due to the discontinuity introduced by the undefined point at x=2.
karush
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well just by observation $x-2$ cancels out leaving $2x+1$ plugging in $2$ gives $2(2)+1 = 5$

or is there some more anointed way to do this.
 

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Not really a fan of this explanation.

I want to know why

$\dfrac{(2x+1)(x-2)}{x-2}$

is NOT EXACTLY THE SAME as

$(2x+1)$
 
I assume its about k

Always thought filling a hole was more rigorous
 
definition of continuity at $x=c$ ...

1. $f(c)$ exists

2. $\displaystyle \lim_{x \to c} f(x)$ exists

3. $\displaystyle \lim_{x \to c} f(x) = f(c)$
 
I shall personally anoint this:
The definition of "continuous" is "f is continuous at x= a if and only if both f(a) and \lim_{x\to a} f(x) exist and
\lim_{x\to a} f(x)= f(a)". Further
\lim_{x\to a} f(x)= L is defined by "given any \epsilon> 0, there exist \delta> 0 such that if 0< |x- a|< \delta then |f(x)- L|< \epsilon.

Note the "0< |x- a|" which perhaps should be given more emphasis in math classes. The value of \lim_{x\to a} f(x) depends entirely upon the values of f(x) for x close to x= a, but the value of f(a), or even whether it exists, is completely irrelevant to the limit!

For this problem, as long as x is not 2, x- 2 is not 0 and the "x- 2" terms in numerator and denominator cancel.

That is, for x\ne 2, f(x)= \frac{(2x+1)(x- 2)}{x- 2}= 2x+1.

tkhunny said:
Not really a fan of this explanation.

I want to know why

$\dfrac{(2x+1)(x-2)}{x-2}$

is NOT EXACTLY THE SAME as

$(2x+1)$
They are "NOT EXACTLY THE SAME" because the second has value 5 when x= 2 and the first is not defined there. The graph of y= 2x+ 1 is a straight line while the graph of y=\frac{(2x+1)(x- 2)}{x- 2} is that same straight line except for a hole at (2, 5).


 

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