2nd order ODE solution bases /wronskain question

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on understanding the relationship between two bases of solutions for a second-order ordinary differential equation (ODE) and their Wronskian. The participants clarify that the two bases are not merely multiples of each other, as demonstrated with the equation \(y'' - y = 0\), which can yield different forms such as \(y = A\cosh(x) + B\sinh(x)\) or \(y = Ce^x + De^{-x}\). The correct approach involves calculating the Wronskian for both bases and relating them through linear combinations, leading to the conclusion that \(k = c_1c_4 - c_2c_3\) is a valid result.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of second-order ordinary differential equations (ODEs)
  • Familiarity with the concept of Wronskian in differential equations
  • Knowledge of linear combinations of functions
  • Basic proficiency in hyperbolic functions and exponential functions
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the properties of the Wronskian for different bases of solutions in ODEs
  • Explore the derivation of solutions for second-order linear differential equations
  • Learn about linear independence of functions in the context of differential equations
  • Investigate the implications of the Wronskian being zero or non-zero
USEFUL FOR

Students and educators in mathematics, particularly those focusing on differential equations, as well as researchers needing a deeper understanding of solution bases and their properties.

Greger
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hello

this question from my coarse notes has been giving me some trouble so i thought i would ask for some help on here,

http://img88.imageshack.us/img88/9764/asfar.jpg

i understand that since the bases are bases of the same solutions then they are just a multiple of each other, but I'm not sure how you would show it using the wronskain.

i first tried starting by saying since both are two different bases for the solutions then
k\phi_{1}=\psi_{1}

k\phi_{2}=\psi_{2}

then doing the wronskian, but it gives k2

it seems like there is something straight forward that i am not seeing

anyone know what it might be?
 
Last edited by a moderator:
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Greger said:
hello

this question from my coarse notes has been giving me some trouble so i thought i would ask for some help on here,

http://img88.imageshack.us/img88/9764/asfar.jpg

i understand that since the bases are bases of the same solutions then they are just a multiple of each other, but I'm not sure how you would show it using the wronskain.

No, they aren't just multiples of each other. For example, the equation ##y''-y=0## could have ##y=A\cosh(x)+B\sinh(x)## or ##y=Ce^x+De^{-x}##.
i first tried starting by saying since both are two different bases for the solutions then
k\phi_{1}=\psi_{1}

k\phi_{2}=\psi_{2}

then doing the wronskian, but it gives k2

it seems like there is something straight forward that i am not seeing

anyone know what it might be?

What you do know is that each function in the second basis is a linear combination of the functions in the first basis. Calciulate the Wronskian for the second basis and use that fact to relate it to the Wronskian in the first basis.
 
Last edited by a moderator:
Hey,

Thanks for your reply!

Sorry I had an assignment I had to work on before I started studying math again,

So I did what you said just now using

c_1\phi_{1} +c_2\phi_{2}=\psi_{1}

c_3\phi_{1} +c_4\phi_{2}=\psi_{1}

I got the required result with k = c1c4-c2c3

It seems good to me thanks!

Does it look right to you?
 
Yes, that looks to be correct.
 

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