- #1
Greger
- 46
- 0
hello
this question from my coarse notes has been giving me some trouble so i thought i would ask for some help on here,
http://img88.imageshack.us/img88/9764/asfar.jpg
i understand that since the bases are bases of the same solutions then they are just a multiple of each other, but I'm not sure how you would show it using the wronskain.
i first tried starting by saying since both are two different bases for the solutions then
[itex]k\phi_{1}=\psi_{1}[/itex]
[itex]k\phi_{2}=\psi_{2}[/itex]
then doing the wronskian, but it gives k2
it seems like there is something straight forward that i am not seeing
anyone know what it might be?
this question from my coarse notes has been giving me some trouble so i thought i would ask for some help on here,
http://img88.imageshack.us/img88/9764/asfar.jpg
i understand that since the bases are bases of the same solutions then they are just a multiple of each other, but I'm not sure how you would show it using the wronskain.
i first tried starting by saying since both are two different bases for the solutions then
[itex]k\phi_{1}=\psi_{1}[/itex]
[itex]k\phi_{2}=\psi_{2}[/itex]
then doing the wronskian, but it gives k2
it seems like there is something straight forward that i am not seeing
anyone know what it might be?
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