- #1

Greger

- 46

- 0

hello

this question from my coarse notes has been giving me some trouble so i thought i would ask for some help on here,

http://img88.imageshack.us/img88/9764/asfar.jpg

i understand that since the bases are bases of the same solutions then they are just a multiple of each other, but I'm not sure how you would show it using the wronskain.

i first tried starting by saying since both are two different bases for the solutions then

[itex]k\phi_{1}=\psi_{1}[/itex]

[itex]k\phi_{2}=\psi_{2}[/itex]

then doing the wronskian, but it gives k

it seems like there is something straight forward that i am not seeing

anyone know what it might be?

this question from my coarse notes has been giving me some trouble so i thought i would ask for some help on here,

http://img88.imageshack.us/img88/9764/asfar.jpg

i understand that since the bases are bases of the same solutions then they are just a multiple of each other, but I'm not sure how you would show it using the wronskain.

i first tried starting by saying since both are two different bases for the solutions then

[itex]k\phi_{1}=\psi_{1}[/itex]

[itex]k\phi_{2}=\psi_{2}[/itex]

then doing the wronskian, but it gives k

^{2}it seems like there is something straight forward that i am not seeing

anyone know what it might be?

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