4-velocity length under a force

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4-velocity "length" under a force

In relativity we have [tex]u^\mu u_\mu=c^2[/tex], which is just another way of saying that [tex]p^\mu p_\mu=m^2c^2[/tex] or [tex]E^2=m^2c^4+p^2c^2[/tex].

This is relatively (no pun!) easy to see for a free particle. But if we have a vector potential acting on the particle, is the above still true? Or do we have instead that

[tex](p_\mu +qA_\mu)(p^\mu+qA^\mu)= constant[/tex]

?
 
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Ok. I think I have it. It is actually

[tex](p_\mu -qA_\mu)(p^\mu-qA^\mu)= m^2c^2[/tex]

but p here is the canonical conjugate momentum

[tex]p_\mu =u_\mu+qA_\mu[/tex]

so when you put that in, you still get [tex]u_\mu u^\mu=c^2[/tex].

I'd still love to hear if you experts concur.
 


pellman said:
Ok. I think I have it. It is actually

[tex](p_\mu -qA_\mu)(p^\mu-qA^\mu)= m^2c^2[/tex]

but p here is the canonical conjugate momentum

[tex]p_\mu =u_\mu+qA_\mu[/tex]

so when you put that in, you still get [tex]u_\mu u^\mu=c^2[/tex].
This is correct. That is how vector potentials affect the otion of particles.
For a 4-scalar potential S, you would let m-->m+S.
 


clem said:
This is correct. That is how vector potentials affect the otion of particles.
For a 4-scalar potential S, you would let m-->m+S.

Really? that would be weird. This would be identical to situation in which the particle's mass depended on its position in spacetime--its actual rest mass, not its "relativistic mass".
 


No, m is still the invariant mass(which is equal to the rest mass). It is the energy E that changes with position.
 


clem said:
No, m is still the invariant mass(which is equal to the rest mass). It is the energy E that changes with position.

Isn't energy the same as p^0? And isn't that modified already by the 0th component of the vector potential?

We're going off on a tangent here, but I'm curious.
 


Yes, E=p^0. With 4-vector [tex]A^\mu=(V,{\vec A})[/tex] potential
and scalar potential S, the equation is
[tex](E-V)^2=({\vec p}-{\vec A})^2-(m+S)^2.[/tex]