A function describing a tilted tube

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Niles
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Hi

I have a function, which is cylindrical symmetric given by
[tex] f(x, y, z) = \exp(-x^2-z^2)[/tex]
For a given [itex]y[/itex], the function [itex]\exp(-x^2-z^2) = c[/itex] traces out a circle (where c is a constant). A contourplot of [itex]f(x, 0, z)[/itex] is attached.

However, this is for [itex]y=0[/itex] (currently, I get the same plot for an arbitrary value of y). I am interested in constructing a function, which is identical to [itex]f[/itex], but where the center of the above circle increases linearly with y. In other words, at [itex]y=y'[/itex] I want my function to have the same contour plot as attached, but its center should be at [itex]y=y'[/itex].

Is it possible to construct such a function? I guess this is merely a tube, which is tilted.
 

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Hi Niles! :smile:

Essentially, this is a function of r, where in the simple case r is the distance from the y-axis,

ie r2 = x2 + z2.

In the slanted case, r is the distance (parallel to the x-z-plane) from (ky',y',0),

so r2 = (x - ky')2 + z2. :wink:
 
Thanks tiny-tim, that is a good explanation.
 
If I want to rotate this function by an angle α around the y-axis (for a given slope k), then I need to invoke the rotation matrix. So we now have
[tex] f(x, y, z) = \exp(-(x-ky)^2)\exp(-z^2)[/tex]
and in order to rotate it I would use
[tex] f(x\cos(\alpha) - z\sin(\alpha), y, x\sin(\alpha) + z\cos(\alpha))[/tex]
Is this correct?
 
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tiny-tim said:
Hi Niles! :smile:

Yes, that looks ok.
Thanks. However, I think I am not 100% correct - simply because we're not rotating the function along the [itex]y[/itex]-axis (which is what I suggested above), but along the line [itex]ky=x[/itex]. I'll have to work on this a little more... I can let you know how it turns out.

By the way, can I slant [itex]f[/itex] independenty in both [itex]x[/itex] and [itex]z[/itex]? So if I want a gradient in both of these dimensions, I am allowed to make the trivial extension
[tex] f(x, y, z) = \exp(-(x-k'y)^2)\exp(-(z-k''z)^2)[/tex]
I believe so, because the two dimensions are independent of each other.
 
Niles said:
By the way, can I slant [itex]f[/itex] independenty in both [itex]x[/itex] and [itex]z[/itex]? So if I want a gradient in both of these dimensions, I am allowed to make the trivial extension
[tex] f(x, y, z) = \exp(-(x-k'y)^2)\exp(-(z-k''z)^2)[/tex]
I believe so, because the two dimensions are independent of each other.

let's see …

that makes r the distance from (x,y,z) to (k'y,y,k''z),

so yes, that would be from the axis x/k' = z'k'' = y, but slanted so as to be parallel to the x-z plane :smile:
 
tiny-tim said:
let's see …

that makes r the distance from (x,y,z) to (k'y,y,k''z),

so yes, that would be from the axis x/k' = z'k'' = y, but slanted so as to be parallel to the x-z plane :smile:

Thanks, that's also what I thought.. I'm interested in seeing how to generalize this result to ellipses. I'll best create a new thread in order to keep things organized, but I will refer to this thread.
 
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