A Function domain/range question

  • Thread starter Thread starter L Huyghe
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Function
Click For Summary
A function with a domain of (0,1) and a range of [0,1] is challenging to construct due to the nature of continuous functions. The discussion highlights that while mapping the interval (0, 1) to [0, 1] is difficult, it can be approached by considering piecewise functions or separating rational and irrational numbers. The example of y=x² is mentioned, which maps (-1,1) to [0,1), illustrating how half-closed intervals can be utilized. Ultimately, there is consensus that no continuous, invertible function can achieve the desired mapping from (0,1) to [0,1]. The problem requires overcoming mental blocks and breaking it down into manageable parts.
L Huyghe
Messages
4
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement


Give an example of a function whose domain equals the interval (0,1) but whose range is equal to [0, 1].
2. The attempt at a solution
I can't see a way how such function would exits. I though about it this way, if it was the opposite Domain [0,1] and range (0, 1), we could make values 0 and 1 into any number in between without it not being a function, and still having a range that is an interval. If I take domain (0, 1) and produce range [0, 1], I would need to take one of the numbers from (0, 1) and make it [0, 1]. Meaning its no longer has an range that is an interval. It could have a range that is an interval if one of numbers (0, 1) had two possible answers, but the example would no longer be a function.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
You don't have to have an equal-measure correspondence between your domain and range.

Try mapping the domain (0,1/2) to the range (0,1). You can do it, right? Now extend the domain to (0,1) and use the endpoints too.
 
There is no continuous function that will do map (0, 1) to [0, 1]. I frankly don't see any way to construct a function to fit these conditions that would make sense in a precalculus class. I would separate (0, 1) into rational and irrational numbers, map the irrational numbers to themselves, the "shift" the rationals to fit 0 and 1 in.
 
There is no continuous, invertible function that maps (0,1) to [0,1]. However, there is no continuous function that maps [0,1] to (0,1).

The problem is, IMO, rather easy as soon as you get past the mental blocks -- e.g. limiting your thought to invertible functions, avoiding piecewise-defined functions, trying to do the whole problem in one shot rather than breaking it into easier pieces, et cetera.
 
Consider the function y=x2. It maps the open interval (-1,1) to the half-closed interval [0,1). If you understand how the half-closure comes about in this case, you should be able to figure out a suitable function for your problem.
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
1K
  • · Replies 15 ·
Replies
15
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 11 ·
Replies
11
Views
3K
  • · Replies 22 ·
Replies
22
Views
2K
  • · Replies 23 ·
Replies
23
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 11 ·
Replies
11
Views
3K
  • · Replies 14 ·
Replies
14
Views
4K