A function's derivative being not defined for some X but having a limit

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Mcp
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Let's say I have a function whose derivative is (tan(x)-sin(x))/x. It is not defined for X=0 but as X approaches 0 the derivative approaches 0, so should I conclude that my function is not differentiable at X=0 or should I conclude that the derivative at X=0 is 0.
 
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A function cannot be differentiable at points where it is not defined.

However if you define [tex]f(x) = \begin{cases}<br /> \lim_{\epsilon \to 0}\int_\epsilon^x \frac{\tan u - \sin u}{u}\,du, & x \neq 0, \\<br /> 0, & x = 0\end{cases}[/tex] then [itex]f[/itex] will be differentiable and [tex] f'(0) = \lim_{x \to 0} \frac{f(x)}{x} = 0.[/tex]
 
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pasmith said:
A function cannot be differentiable at points where it is not defined.

However if you define [tex]f(x) = \begin{cases}<br /> \lim_{\epsilon \to 0}\int_\epsilon^x \frac{\tan u - \sin u}{u}\,du, & x \neq 0, \\<br /> 0, & x = 0\end{cases}[/tex] then [itex]f[/itex] will be differentiable and [tex] f'(0) = \lim_{x \to 0} \frac{f(x)}{x} = 0.[/tex]
Are you saying that derivative not being defined at X=0 also implies that the function is not defined at X=0?
 
Mcp said:
Are you saying that derivative not being defined at X=0 also implies that the function is not defined at X=0?
No. The other way around. No function defined, no derivative. If the function is defined and the derivative (as limit) exists, then it is differentiable, regardless of there is a closed expression or not. In your case we have
$$
f'(x) = \begin{cases} \dfrac{\tan(x)-\sin(x)}{x} & \text{ if }x\neq 0\\ 0 & \text{ if } x=0 \end{cases}
$$
The function ##f(x)## whose derivative is ##f'(x)## has to be defined at ##x=0## in an appropriate, i.e. differentiable way. If ##f(x)## isn't defined at ##x=0##, then the question whether ##\left. \dfrac{d}{dx}\right|_{x=0}f(x)## exists or not doesn't make sense.
 
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