A problem with time dilation help?

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The discussion revolves around the complexities of time dilation and the behavior of light when moving at relativistic speeds, specifically at 99% the speed of light (99%C). Participants clarify that while an observer moving at high speed perceives their own time as normal, they will see clocks of stationary observers running slow due to time dilation. The confusion arises when considering two light beams: one moving with the observer and another coming from the opposite direction. It is emphasized that the speed of light remains constant regardless of the observer's motion, and the effects of time dilation and length contraction are relative to different frames of reference. Ultimately, the discussion highlights the intricacies of simultaneity and the relativistic addition of velocities, asserting that time cannot run slow and fast simultaneously for a single observer.
  • #91


Your disagreement must indeed be subtle as I fail to see where you think I'm incorrect.

The only part of my post about SR is where I agree that the second postulate is indeed a postulate, do you not think the second postulate is a postulate?
 
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  • #92


TrickyDicky said:
Your disagreement must indeed be subtle as I fail to see where you think I'm incorrect.

The only part of my post about SR is where I agree that the second postulate is indeed a postulate, do you not think the second postulate is a postulate?

Sure a postulate is a postulate. :smile:
However, you agreed that a definition is a postulate. :-p
My point was that a mere definition isn't a postulate.

A postulate may be open to falsification (as is the case with both SR's postulates); and to be precise it should relate to definitions (as is also the case with both SR's postulates). In contrast, a definition is a human choice that can't be falsified (although it can be poorly chosen).

Is that too subtle?? :rolleyes:

Cheers,
Harald
 
  • #93


harrylin said:
Sure a postulate is a postulate. :smile:
However, you agreed that a definition is a postulate. :-p
My point was that a mere definition isn't a postulate.
Nope, I agreed with the definition of postulate, which is not the same as agreeing that a definition is a postulate. Hope this is not too subtle. :-p
harrylin said:
A postulate may be open to falsification (as is the case with both SR's postulates); and to be precise it should relate to definitions (as is also the case with both SR's postulates). In contrast, a definition is a human choice that can't be falsified (although it can be poorly chosen).

Is that too subtle?? :rolleyes:
Ugh, I'd say it is, but I think I can agree with this. :smile:
 
  • #94


TrickyDicky said:
Nope, I agreed with the definition of postulate, which is not the same as agreeing that a definition is a postulate. [..]

Evidently it's still not clear to you that you called a mere definition a postulate... Thus I'll have to start it as a topic. Anyway, it should become a FAQ. :smile:

Cheers,
Harald
 
  • #95


harrylin said:
Evidently it's still not clear to you that you called a mere definition a postulate... Thus I'll have to start it as a topic. Anyway, it should become a FAQ. :smile:

Cheers,
Harald

PS: On second thought I do agree with you that the way it was formulated here does fall under the second postulate: there was another subtlety in formulation that I overlooked! :blushing:
I now reiterated this topic in the new thread by rede:
https://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?t=518005&page=2

Harald
 

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