- #1

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## Main Question or Discussion Point

my question is the following

let be the Fourier transform [tex] \int_{-\infty}^{\infty}d^{4}p \frac{exp( ip*k)}{p^{2}+a^{2}} [/tex]

here [tex] p^{2}= p_{0}^{2}+p_{1}^{2}+p_{2}^{2}+p_{3}^{2} [/tex]

is the modulus of vector 'p' , here * means scalar product

for the scalar product i can use the definition [tex] p*k= |p|.|k|.cos(u) [/tex]

so ony the modulus appear, my quesiton is if there is a way to set cos(u) =1 to get rid of the integration about angular variables, thanks

let be the Fourier transform [tex] \int_{-\infty}^{\infty}d^{4}p \frac{exp( ip*k)}{p^{2}+a^{2}} [/tex]

here [tex] p^{2}= p_{0}^{2}+p_{1}^{2}+p_{2}^{2}+p_{3}^{2} [/tex]

is the modulus of vector 'p' , here * means scalar product

for the scalar product i can use the definition [tex] p*k= |p|.|k|.cos(u) [/tex]

so ony the modulus appear, my quesiton is if there is a way to set cos(u) =1 to get rid of the integration about angular variables, thanks